EUROPAM

European Public Accountability Mechanisms

Malta

Country score (EU Average*)
  • 40(72) Political Financing
  • 26(57) Financial Disclosure
  • 46(49) Conflict of Interest
  • 81(59) Freedom of Information
  • 69(63) Public Procurement
  • 76(66) Anti Money Laundering
  • 67(71) Asset Recovery

Country Facts

IncomeHigh
GNI per capita (2011 PPP $)33580.41
Population, total436947.00
Urban population (% of total)95.53
Internet users (per 100 people)77.29
Life expectancy at birth (years)81.95
Mean years of schooling (years)11.3
Global Competitiveness Index4.6
Sources: World Bank, UNDP, WEF.

Political Financing

The Financing of Political Parties Act 2015 and the Malta Foreign Interference Act 1982 are the main laws regulating the financing of political parties in Malta. The 2015 law adds more details regarding permitted donations, reporting requirements and sanctions which did not exist in the previous General Elections Act (1991, amended 2015).

There are some limits on the private income of political parties. Donations from foreign interests and in some cases from corporations are prohibited. Trade unions are permitted to donate but anonymous donations are banned. Donations from some sources have also been banned and are specified in the law. There are limits on the amount donors may contribute.

There appear to be no provisions for the direct or indirect public funding of parties or candidates in Malta.

For regulations on spending, vote buying is banned but there are no limits on the amount parties or candidates may spend.

Parties are required to keep accounts. These do not have to disclose financial information in relation to election campaigns and only need to reveal the identity of donors in some cases. The accounts are to be made public. The accounts are overseen by Election Commission and the First Hall, Civil Court. Sanctions for breaches of the provisions are fines and forfeiture.

Quantitative Data

Primary Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Bans and limits on private income676767676739
Public funding505050505038
Regulations on spending252525252525
Reporting, oversight and sanctions838383838358

Values lie in range between 0 and 100, higher values implying higher legislation comprehensiveness


Qualitative Data

We are frequently reviewing and refining our data, so in case you notice any mistake in our assessment, feel free to send us an email by clicking the button ()

Bans and limits on private income

Is there a ban on donations from foreign interests to political parties? Yes. D3. (1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, it shall not be lawful for an alien to perform, do, hold, take part in, aid or abet, or allow, any restricted activity in Malta. (2) For the purposes of this Act, "a restricted activity" means - (a) any activity, or participation in any activity, of a political nature or having a political purpose at any time during the period commencing nine months prior to the date on which Parliament would, unless sooner dissolved, stand dissolved by virtue of article 76(2) of the Constitution and the date of the publication of the results of an election, or at any time between the dissolution of Parliament according to article 76(1) of the Constitution and the date of the publication of the results of an election; (b) the provision at any time to or for the benefit of a political party, person, club or similar institution, whether directly or through an intermediary agent, of any money, equipment or other material, by way of gift or otherwise not against equivalent valuable consideration, excluding books and other publications intended for sale or distribution not exclusively or mainly for Malta, unless such provision is authorised by the Monitoring Committee in accordance with thisAct: (Section 3(1) & 2 Foreign Interference Act 1982)
Is there a ban on donations from foreign interests to candidates? Yes. D3. (1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, it shall not be lawful for an alien to perform, do, hold, take part in, aid or abet, or allow, any restricted activity in Malta. (2) For the purposes of this Act, "a restricted activity" means - (a) any activity, or participation in any activity, of a political nature or having a political purpose at any time during the period commencing nine months prior to the date on which Parliament would, unless sooner dissolved, stand dissolved by virtue of article 76(2) of the Constitution and the date of the publication of the results of an election, or at any time between the dissolution of Parliament according to article 76(1) of the Constitution and the date of the publication of the results of an election; (b) the provision at any time to or for the benefit of a political party, person, club or similar institution, whether directly or through an intermediary agent, of any money, equipment or other material, by way of gift or otherwise not against equivalent valuable consideration, excluding books and other publications intended for sale or distribution not exclusively or mainly for Malta, unless such provision is authorised by the Monitoring Committee in accordance with thisAct: (Section 3(1) & 2 Foreign Interference Act 1982)
Is there a ban on corporate donations to political parties? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on corporate donations to candidates? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on donations from corporations with government contracts to political parties? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on donations from corporations of partial government ownership to political parties? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on donations from corporations with government contracts to candidates? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on donations from corporations of partial government ownership to candidates? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on donations from Trade Unions to political parties? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on donations from Trade Unions to candidates? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on anonymous donations to political parties? Yes. Political parties shall not receive donations (PART IV (34), Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2016)
Is there a ban on anonymous donations to candidates? Yes. Political parties shall not receive donations (PART IV (34), Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2017)
Is there a ban on state resources being given to or received by political parties or candidates (excluding regulated public funding)? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a ban on any other form of donation? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a limit on the amount a donor can contribute to a political party over a time period (not election specific)? Yes. Political parties shall not receive donations:(e) in excess of twenty-five thousand euro (€25,000) during one calendar year from the same source: Provided that for the purposes of this paragraph companies forming part of the same group of companies or which directly or indirectly are controlled by each other or by the same person or group of persons, shall be considered as a single source (PART IV (34), Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2016)
Is there a limit on the amount a donor can contribute to a political party in relation to an election? No. Absent from legal framework
Is there a limit on the amount a donor can contribute to a candidate? No. Absent from legal framework

Public funding 

Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Share of votes in previous election No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Representation in elected body No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Participation in election No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Number of candidates No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Share of seats in previous election No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Share of votes in next election No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Registration as a political party No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Share of seats in next election No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Number of members No. Absent from legal framework
Eligibility criteria for direct public funding to political parties: Other No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties: Proportional to votes received No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties: Equal No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties: Proportional to seats received No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties: Flat rate by votes received No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties: Share of expenses reimbursed No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties: Proportional to candidates fielded No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties: Number of members No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation calculations for direct public funding to political parties: Other No. Absent from legal framework
Earmarking provisions for direct public funding to political parties No. Absent from legal framework
Earmarking provisions for direct public funding to political parties: Campaign spending No. Absent from legal framework
Earmarking provisions for direct public funding to political parties: Ongoing party activities No. Absent from legal framework
Earmarking provisions for direct public funding to political parties: Intra-party institution No. Absent from legal framework
Earmarking provisions for direct public funding to political parties: Other No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation criteria for free or subsidized access to media for political parties Yes. See sub-indicators
Allocation criteria for free or subsidized access to media for political parties: Equal No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation criteria for free or subsidized access to media for political parties: Number of candidates No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation criteria for free or subsidized access to media for political parties: Share of seats No. Absent from legal framework
Allocation criteria for free or subsidized access to media for political parties: Share of votes in preceding election Yes. "A 1971 Court of Appeal decision affirmed that in apportioning participation in such schemes of electoral broadcasts between political parties the Broadcasting Authority had an obligation to take account of the size of the parties.‌" (EPRA (2000) Political Communication on Television Matters for debate, EPRA, Paris.​)
Allocation criteria for free or subsidized access to media for political parties: Other No. Absent from legal framework
Are there provisions for free or subsidized access to media for candidates? Yes. "in Malta, the Broadcasting Authority organises schemes of political broadcasts during electoral campaigns and grants access to these schemes to all political parties and independent candidates contesting the general elections.‌" (EPRA (2000) Political Communication on Television Matters for debate, EPRA, Paris.​ )
Are there provisions for any other form of indirect public funding? Yes. See sub-indicators
Provisions for any other form of indirect public funding: Premises for campaign meetings No. Absent from legal framework
Provisions for any other form of indirect public funding: Space for campaign materials No. Absent from legal framework
Provisions for any other form of indirect public funding: Tax relief Yes. There shall be exempt from the tax : the income of any political party including the income of clubs adhering to political parties (Article 12(1)(f) of the Income Tax Act, 1949, amended 2016)
Provisions for any other form of indirect public funding: Free or subsidised transport No. Absent from legal framework
Provisions for any other form of indirect public funding: Free or subsidised postage cost No. Absent from legal framework
Provisions for any other form of indirect public funding: Other No. Absent from legal framework
Is the provision of direct public funding to political parties related to gender equality among candidates? No. Absent from legal framework
Are there provisions for other financial advantages to encourage gender equality in political parties? No. Absent from legal framework

Regulations on spending 

Is there a ban on vote buying? Yes. The following persons shall be deemed guilty of the offence of bribery: [.‌.‌.‌] every person who, directly or indirectly, by himself or by any other person on his behalf, gives, lends or agrees to give or lend, or offers, promises or promises to procure, or to endeavour to procure, any money or valuable consideration to or for any voter, or to or for any person on behalf of any voter, or to or for any other person, in order to induce any voter to vote or refrain from voting, or corruptly does any such act as aforesaid on account of such voter having voted or refrained from voting at any election under this Ordinance; (Article 56, General Elections Law, No.​ 354, 1991, amended 2015)
Are there bans on state resources being used in favour or against a political party or candidate? No. Absent from legal framework
Are there limits on the amount a political party can spend? No. Absent from legal framework
Are there limits on the amount a candidate can spend? No. Absent from legal framework

Reporting, oversight and sanctions 

Do political parties have to report regularly on their finances? Yes. The treasurer of a political party shall prepare an annual statement of accounts, in respect of each financial year, of that political party (PART III (24), Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2016)
Do political parties have to report on their finances in relation to election campaigns? No. Absent from legal framework
Do candidates have to report on their campaign finances? Yes. 50(1). Within thirty-one days after the date of the publication of the result of an election in the Government Gazette, every candidate at that election shall transmit to the commissioners a return of his election expenses, containing the particulars specified in the Seventh Schedule to this Ordinance, signed by the candidate. (Article 50, General Elections Act, 1991, amended 2015)
Is information in reports from political parties and/​or candidates to be made public? Yes. Where the Commission receives any audited accounts, as a result of the obligation of delivery of statements of accounts to it, it shall, within one month after receiving the statement, make a copy of the statement available for public inspection and it shall post the said statement on the website of the Commission and keep it available for public inspection and on the said website for the period for which the statement is kept by it (PART III (29), Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2016)
Must reports from political parties and/​or candidates reveal the identity of donors? Yes. Donations exceeding 500 EUR from the same source are recorded and donor's name or company registration details revealed (PART IV (37), Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2016)
Institutions receiving financial reports from political parties and/​or candidates
Institutions receiving financial reports from political parties and/​or candidates: Electoral Management Board Yes. 50(1). Within thirty-one days after the date of the publication of the result of an election in the Government Gazette, every candidate at that election shall transmit to the commissioners a return of his election expenses, containing the particulars specified in the Seventh Schedule to this Ordinance, signed by the candidate. (Article 50, General Elections Act, 1991, amended 2015)
Institutions receiving financial reports from political parties and/​or candidates: Auditing agency No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions receiving financial reports from political parties and/​or candidates: Ministry No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions receiving financial reports from political parties and/​or candidates: Special institution No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions receiving financial reports from political parties and/​or candidates: Court No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions receiving financial reports from political parties and/​or candidates: Other No. Absent from legal framework
Is it specified that a particular institution(s) is responsible for examining financial reports and/​or investigating violations?
Institution responsible for examining financial reports and/or investigating violations: Court No. Absent from legal framework
Institution responsible for examining financial reports and/or investigating violations: Ministry No. Absent from legal framework
Institution responsible for examining financial reports and/or investigating violations: Auditing agency No. Absent from legal framework
Institution responsible for examining financial reports and/or investigating violations: Electoral Management Body No. Absent from legal framework
Institution responsible for examining financial reports and/or investigating violations: Institution for this purpose No. Absent from legal framework
Institution responsible for examining financial reports and/or investigating violations: Other No. Absent from legal framework
Other institutions with a formal role in political finance oversight
Institutions with a formal role in political finance oversight: Court No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions with a formal role in political finance oversight: Ministry No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions with a formal role in political finance oversight: Auditing agency No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions with a formal role in political finance oversight: EMB No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions with a formal role in political finance oversight: Institution for this purpose No. Absent from legal framework
Institutions with a formal role in political finance oversight: Other No. Absent from legal framework
Sanctions for political finance infractions
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Fines Yes. Any person who knowingly or negligently makes a statement to the Commission on behalf of a political party, or of a member of a political party for any purpose of this Act, which statement is false in any material particular in which it is made, or purports to be made, shall be liable to an administrative fine not exceeding ten thousand euro (€10,000) and to suspension from holding office in a political party for a period not exceeding three months by way of administrative sanction. (PART III, Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2016)
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Loss of public funding No. Absent from legal framework
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Penal/Criminal No. Absent from legal framework
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Forfeiture No. Absent from legal framework
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Deregistration of party No. Absent from legal framework
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Loss of elected office No. Absent from legal framework
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Suspension of political party Yes. Any person who knowingly or negligently makes a statement to the Commission on behalf of a political party, or of a member of a political party for any purpose of this Act, which statement is false in any material particular in which it is made, or purports to be made, shall be liable to an administrative fine not exceeding ten thousand euro (€10,000) and to suspension from holding office in a political party for a period not exceeding three months by way of administrative sanction. (PART III, Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2016)
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Loss of nomination of candidate No. Absent from legal framework
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Loss of political rights No. Absent from legal framework
Sanctions for political finance infractions: Other Yes. Any person who knowingly or negligently makes a statement to the Commission on behalf of a political party, or of a member of a political party for any purpose of this Act, which statement is false in any material particular in which it is made, or purports to be made, shall be liable to an administrative fine not exceeding ten thousand euro (€10,000) and to suspension from holding office in a political party for a period not exceeding three months by way of administrative sanction. (PART III, Financing of Political Parties Act, 2015, ammended in 2016)

Legislation

Foreign Interference Act 1982 (English)pdf
EPRA (2000) Political Communication on Television Matters for debate (English)pdf
Income Tax Act, 1949, amended 2016 (English)pdf
General Elections Law, No.​ 354, 1991, amended 2015 (English)pdf

*Last update: 2017


Financial Disclosure

No financial disclosure laws apply to the Maltese Head of State. The Code of Ethics of Ministers, Parliamentary Secretaries and Parliamentary Assistants (2015) requires Ministers to disclose real estate, cash, debts, gifts as well as shares or bonds in public or private companies. MPs disclose real estate and any income from outside employment as to the Code of Ethics of Members of Parliament (1995). Meanwhile, Civil Servants may engage in secondary employment only upon authorization by their superior. This is specified in the Code of Ethics Section C of the Public Administration Act (2009, last amended in 2016), and would include private or public firm ownership and holding advisory positions. The law prescribes that Ministers, MPs and Civil Servants always disclose any private interests they have in a matter of decision-making at the earliest possible instance.

While Ministers only declare their interests upon taking office, MPs make fillings annually and Civil Servants declare interests ad hoc. All the while, the law specifies no sanctions for violations of financial disclosure. While the Secretary to the Cabinet receives declarations made by Ministers, the Speaker of the House of Representatives does so for MPs. Civil Servants always deposit their statements with the administrative superior. While no statements by Civil Servants are public, declarations by Ministers are shared upon authorization by the Prime Minister. MP’s declarations are also to be open to the public. All the while, no location of access is specified for these declarations.

Quantitative Data

Primary Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Disclosure items272525253526
Filing frequency123131313131
Sanctions335050503333
Monitoring and Oversight253838383131
Public access to declarations12383838316

Alternative Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Head of State000000
Ministers05353533740
Members of Parliament495353535349
Civil servants404040404013

Values lie in range between 0 and 100, higher values implying higher legislation comprehensiveness


Qualitative Data

We are frequently reviewing and refining our data, so in case you notice any mistake in our assessment, feel free to send us an email by clicking the button ()

Head of State

Disclosure items

Spouses and children included in disclosure No. Absent from legal framework. The Maltese President is not subject to the Standards in Public Life Act (2018) disclosure regime applicable to ministers/MPs. This is not merely an absence but a scope limitation (Standards in Public Life Act, Cap. 570 (2018))
Income and Assets
Real estate No. Absent from legal framework.
Movable assets No. Absent from legal framework.
Cash No. Absent from legal framework.
Loans and Debts No. Absent from legal framework.
Income from outside employment/assets No. Absent from legal framework.
Incompatibilities
Gifts received as a public official No. Absent from legal framework.
Private firm ownership and/or stock holdings No. Absent from legal framework.
Ownership of state-owned enterprises (SOEs) No. Absent from legal framework.
Holding government contracts No. Absent from legal framework.
Board member, advisor, or company officer of private firm No. Absent from legal framework.
Post-employment No. Absent from legal framework.
Simultaneously holding policy-making position and policy-executing position No. Absent from legal framework.
Participating in official decision-making processes that affect private interests No. Absent from legal framework.
Concurrent employment of family members in public sector No. Absent from legal framework.

Filing frequency

Filing required upon taking office No. Absent from legal framework.
Filing required upon leaving office No. Absent from legal framework.
Filing required annually No. Absent from legal framework.
Ad hoc filing required upon change in assets or conflicts of interest No. Absent from legal framework.

Sanctions

Sanctions stipulated for late filing (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) No. Absent from legal framework.
Sanctions stipulated for non-filing (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) No. Absent from legal framework.
Sanctions stipulated for false disclosure (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) No. Absent from legal framework.

Monitoring and Oversight

Depository body explicitly identified No. Absent from legal framework.
Enforcement body explicitly identified No. Absent from legal framework.
Some agency assigned responsibility for verifying submission No. Absent from legal framework.
Some agency assigned responsibility for verifying accuracy No. Absent from legal framework.

Public access to declarations

Public availability No. Absent from legal framework.
Timing of information release specified No. Absent from legal framework.
Location(s) of access specified No. Absent from legal framework.
Cost of access specified No. Absent from legal framework.

Ministers

Disclosure items

Spouses and children included in disclosure No. Absent from legal framework.
Income and Assets
Real estate No. Declarations must contain total amount of deposits in banks and any other types of financial interests (GRECO fifth evaluation round -evaluation report 2020 -say that "any other type of financial interests "would in principle cover all sorts of assets and movable property of a certain value - cash held in a safety deposit box or outside a financial institution, precious metals and stones, an art collection etc). (Appendix V to Manual of Cabinet procedures (Annexes of the Cabinet Code of Ethics, 2014))
Movable assets No. Declarations must contain total amount of deposits in banks and any other types of financial interests (GRECO fifth evaluation round -evaluation report 2020 -say that "any other type of financial interests "would in principle cover all sorts of assets and movable property of a certain value - cash held in a safety deposit box or outside a financial institution, precious metals and stones, an art collection etc). (Appendix V to Manual of Cabinet procedures (Annexes of the Cabinet Code of Ethics, 2014))
Cash Yes. Declarations must contain total amount of deposits in banks and any other types of financial interests (GRECO fifth evaluation round -evaluation report 2020 -say that "any other type of financial interests "would in principle cover all sorts of assets and movable property of a certain value - cash held in a safety deposit box or outside a financial institution, precious metals and stones, an art collection etc). (Appendix V to Manual of Cabinet procedures (Annexes of the Cabinet Code of Ethics, 2014))
Loans and Debts Yes. Declarations must include total amount of outstanding loans by 31 December of the reference year (Appendix V to Manual of Cabinet procedures (Annexes of the Cabinet Code of Ethics, 2014))
Income from outside employment/assets Yes. Declarations must include income for the reference year (Appendix V to Manual of Cabinet procedures (Annexes of the Cabinet Code of Ethics, 2014))
Incompatibilities
Gifts received as a public official Yes. Absent from legal framework. Gifts are regulated under ethical obligations, even if not strictly within Appendix V declaration items. The Code of Ethics imposes integrity and conflict-of-interest duties that implicitly cover gifts (Standards in Public Life Act (2018), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers), esp. Art. 4 & 5)
Private firm ownership and/or stock holdings Yes. Absent from legal framework. Appendix V explicitly requires disclosure of shares, bonds, and participations (Appendix V to Manual of Cabinet procedures (Annexes of the Cabinet Code of Ethics, 2014))
Ownership of state-owned enterprises (SOEs) No. Absent from legal framework.
Holding government contracts Yes. Declarations must contain shares, bonds, other participations in commercial companies or partnerships, whether public or private; (Appendix V to Manual of Cabinet procedures (Annexes of the Cabinet Code of Ethics, 2014))
Board member, advisor, or company officer of private firm No. Absent from legal framework.
Post-employment No. Absent from legal framework.
Simultaneously holding policy-making position and policy-executing position No. Absent from legal framework. No explicit incompatibility rule framed in those terms; only general conflict-of-interest principles (Standards in Public Life Act (2018), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers), esp. Art. 4 & 5)
Participating in official decision-making processes that affect private interests Yes. Absent from legal framework. This is explicitly covered through conflict-of-interest obligations (Art. 7.3 + Code of Ethics (Second Schedule), Standards in Public Life Act (2018))
Concurrent employment of family members in public sector No. Absent from legal framework.

Filing frequency

Filing required upon taking office Yes. When a Minister is appointed to office, he [/she] shall immediately provide a statement of his assets and interests to the Cabinet Secretary on the relative form. Any interest that may otherwise give rise to a perception of conflict of interest and any actual conflict of interest shall also be indicated to the Cabinet Secretary. This statement shall be provided every year in the manner indicated from time to time. (Art. 7.3, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries))
Filing required upon leaving office No. Absent from legal framework.
Filing required annually Yes. When a Minister is appointed to office, he [/she] shall immediately provide a statement of his assets and interests to the Cabinet Secretary on the relative form. Any interest that may otherwise give rise to a perception of conflict of interest and any actual conflict of interest shall also be indicated to the Cabinet Secretary. This statement shall be provided every year in the manner indicated from time to time. (Art. 7.3, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries))
Ad hoc filing required upon change in assets or conflicts of interest No. Absent from legal framework.

Sanctions

Sanctions stipulated for late filing (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) No. Absent from legal framework.
Sanctions stipulated for non-filing (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) Yes. Where the Commissioner finds that a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty is not of a serious nature, he may grant the person investigated a time limit within which to emedy such breach. Where from the investigation it appears prima facie that a criminal offence or a corrupt practice has been committed, the Commissioner shall refer his findings to the Commissioner of Police or the Permanent Commission Against Corruption, as the case may be, and shall immediately inform the Chairman of the Committee. Where the Committee finds that there has been a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty it may, after granting the person concerned the right to make submissions, decide on any one or more of the following sanctions: (a) admonish the person investigated; (b) recommend that the matter be reported to the Commissioner of Police or the Permanent Commission Against Corruption, as the case may be, for further investigation; (c) in the case where the person investigated is an employee, it may direct Government or any entity or statutory body, to take all necessary measures in accordance with the said person’s conditions of employment, with a view to remedy the breach; (d) in the case of a member of the House of Representatives - (i) recommend that the said House should direct the member to rectify any breach; (ii) demand an apology in writing to be made to the Committee; (iii) demand an apology by way of a personal statement on the floor of the House; (iv) demand the repayment of or payment for resources improperly used; (v) recommend that the House of Representatives takes any other measure it may deem fit; (e) in any case, it may recommend that the House of Representatives directs the person being investigated to rectify the breach. (Arts. 22 (5) (6) and 28, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020))
Sanctions stipulated for false disclosure (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) Yes. Where the Commissioner finds that a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty is not of a serious nature, he may grant the person investigated a time limit within which to emedy such breach. Where from the investigation it appears prima facie that a criminal offence or a corrupt practice has been committed, the Commissioner shall refer his findings to the Commissioner of Police or the Permanent Commission Against Corruption, as the case may be, and shall immediately inform the Chairman of the Committee. Where the Committee finds that there has been a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty it may, after granting the person concerned the right to make submissions, decide on any one or more of the following sanctions: (a) admonish the person investigated; (b) recommend that the matter be reported to the Commissioner of Police or the Permanent Commission Against Corruption, as the case may be, for further investigation; (c) in the case where the person investigated is an employee, it may direct Government or any entity or statutory body, to take all necessary measures in accordance with the said person’s conditions of employment, with a view to remedy the breach; (d) in the case of a member of the House of Representatives - (i) recommend that the said House should direct the member to rectify any breach; (ii) demand an apology in writing to be made to the Committee; (iii) demand an apology by way of a personal statement on the floor of the House; (iv) demand the repayment of or payment for resources improperly used; (v) recommend that the House of Representatives takes any other measure it may deem fit; (e) in any case, it may recommend that the House of Representatives directs the person being investigated to rectify the breach. (Arts. 22 (5) (6) and 28, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020))

Monitoring and Oversight

Depository body explicitly identified Yes. When a Minister is appointed to office, he [/she] shall immediately provide a statement of his assets and interests to the Cabinet Secretary on the relative form. Any interest that may otherwise give rise to a perception of conflict of interest and any actual conflict of interest shall also be indicated to the Cabinet Secretary. This statement shall be provided every year in the manner indicated from time to time. (Art. 7.3, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries))
Enforcement body explicitly identified No. Absent from legal framework.
Some agency assigned responsibility for verifying submission No. Absent from legal framework.
Some agency assigned responsibility for verifying accuracy Yes. The Commissioner for Standards in Public life has to examine and if necessary verify declarations relating to income or assets (Art. 13 (a), Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020))

Public access to declarations

Public availability No. Absent from legal framework.
Timing of information release specified No. Absent from legal framework.
Location(s) of access specified No. Absent from legal framework.
Cost of access specified No. Absent from legal framework.

Members of Parliament

Disclosure items

Spouses and children included in disclosure Yes. Immovable property of spouses (if community of acquests applies) and minor children need to be indicated in public register (manner of acquisition and use of property may be indicated as well). (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Income and Assets
Real estate Yes. Immovable property of member of House of Representatives needs to be indicated in public register. (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Movable assets No. Absent from legal framework.
Cash No. Absent from legal framework.
Loans and Debts No. Absent from legal framework.
Income from outside employment/assets Yes. Work or profession and identity of employer, directorship or other official positions in commercial companies, associations, boards, co-operatives or other groups (even if voluntary) need to be indicated in public register. (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Incompatibilities
Gifts received as a public official No. Absent from legal framework.
Private firm ownership and/or stock holdings Yes. Shares in commercial companies, investments and other forms of pecuniary interest need to be indicated in public register. (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Ownership of state-owned enterprises (SOEs) Yes. Shares in commercial companies, investments and other forms of pecuniary interest need to be indicated in public register. (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Holding government contracts No. Absent from legal framework.
Board member, advisor, or company officer of private firm Yes. Official position in board needs to be indicated in public register. (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Post-employment No. Absent from legal framework.
Simultaneously holding policy-making position and policy-executing position No. Absent from legal framework.
Participating in official decision-making processes that affect private interests Yes. Professional interest (including work interest consultancy, management or other form of connection, pecuniary or otherwise) with persons, groups or companies that have direct interest in legislation before House needs to be declared in House at first opportunity (before vote is taken). (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Concurrent employment of family members in public sector No. Absent from legal framework.

Filing frequency

Filing required upon taking office Yes. Absent from legal framework. MPs must submit declarations to the public register; although not always phrased as “upon taking office,” it is implicit in the obligation to declare interests at the start of mandate (Art. 5, First Schedule, Standards in Public Life Act (2018))
Filing required upon leaving office No. Absent from legal framework.
Filing required annually Yes. The Speaker of the House of Representatives establishes time at which member of House of Representative needs to file (annually). (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Ad hoc filing required upon change in assets or conflicts of interest No. Absent from legal framework.

Sanctions

Sanctions stipulated for late filing (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) No. Absent from legal framework.
Sanctions stipulated for non-filing (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) Yes. Where the Commissioner finds that a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty is not of a serious nature, he may grant the person investigated a time limit within which to emedy such breach. Where from the investigation it appears prima facie that a criminal offence or a corrupt practice has been committed, the Commissioner shall refer his findings to the Commissioner of Police or the Permanent Commission Against Corruption, as the case may be, and shall immediately inform the Chairman of the Committee. Where the Committee finds that there has been a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty it may, after granting the person concerned the right to make submissions, decide on any one or more of the following sanctions: (a) admonish the person investigated; (b) recommend that the matter be reported to the Commissioner of Police or the Permanent Commission Against Corruption, as the case may be, for further investigation; (c) in the case where the person investigated is an employee, it may direct Government or any entity or statutory body, to take all necessary measures in accordance with the said person’s conditions of employment, with a view to remedy the breach; (d) in the case of a member of the House of Representatives - (i) recommend that the said House should direct the member to rectify any breach; (ii) demand an apology in writing to be made to the Committee; (iii) demand an apology by way of a personal statement on the floor of the House; (iv) demand the repayment of or payment for resources improperly used; (v) recommend that the House of Representatives takes any other measure it may deem fit; (e) in any case, it may recommend that the House of Representatives directs the person being investigated to rectify the breach. (Arts. 22 (5) (6) and 28, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020))
Sanctions stipulated for false disclosure (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) Yes. Where the Commissioner finds that a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty is not of a serious nature, he may grant the person investigated a time limit within which to emedy such breach. Where from the investigation it appears prima facie that a criminal offence or a corrupt practice has been committed, the Commissioner shall refer his findings to the Commissioner of Police or the Permanent Commission Against Corruption, as the case may be, and shall immediately inform the Chairman of the Committee. Where the Committee finds that there has been a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty it may, after granting the person concerned the right to make submissions, decide on any one or more of the following sanctions: (a) admonish the person investigated; (b) recommend that the matter be reported to the Commissioner of Police or the Permanent Commission Against Corruption, as the case may be, for further investigation; (c) in the case where the person investigated is an employee, it may direct Government or any entity or statutory body, to take all necessary measures in accordance with the said person’s conditions of employment, with a view to remedy the breach; (d) in the case of a member of the House of Representatives - (i) recommend that the said House should direct the member to rectify any breach; (ii) demand an apology in writing to be made to the Committee; (iii) demand an apology by way of a personal statement on the floor of the House; (iv) demand the repayment of or payment for resources improperly used; (v) recommend that the House of Representatives takes any other measure it may deem fit; (e) in any case, it may recommend that the House of Representatives directs the person being investigated to rectify the breach. (Arts. 22 (5) (6) and 28, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020))

Monitoring and Oversight

Depository body explicitly identified Yes. The register will be kept by the Speaker of the House of Representatives. (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Enforcement body explicitly identified No. Absent from legal framework.
Some agency assigned responsibility for verifying submission No. Absent from legal framework.
Some agency assigned responsibility for verifying accuracy Yes. The Commissioner for Standards in Public life has to examine and if necessary verify declarations relating to income or assets (Art. 13 (a), Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020))

Public access to declarations

Public availability Yes. The register shall be open to inspection by the public. (Art. 5, Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives))
Timing of information release specified No. Absent from legal framework.
Cost of access specified No. Absent from legal framework.

Civil servants

Disclosure items

Spouses and children included in disclosure No. Absent from legal framework.
Income and Assets
Real estate No. Absent from legal framework.
Movable assets No. Absent from legal framework.
Cash No. Absent from legal framework.
Loans and Debts No. Absent from legal framework.
Income from outside employment/assets No. Absent from legal framework.
Incompatibilities
Gifts received as a public official No. Absent from legal framework.
Private firm ownership and/or stock holdings Yes. Prior approval of the Permanent Secretary of the Ministry concerned or the Chairperson/Chief Executive Officer is required before public employees may engage in any form of business/employement outside official duties. (Article 27 of the Code of Ethics Section C of the Public Administration Act (2009) (last amended in 2019) CORRECT CITATION: Art. XX, Public Administration Act 2019, First Schedule (Code of Ethics for Public Employees and Board Members))
Ownership of state-owned enterprises (SOEs) Yes. Prior approval of the Permanent Secretary of the Ministry concerned or the Chairperson/Chief Executive Officer is required before public employees may engage in any form of business/employement outside official duties. (Article 27 of the Code of Ethics Section C of the Public Administration Act (2009) (last amended in 2019))
Holding government contracts No. Absent from legal framework.
Board member, advisor, or company officer of private firm Yes. Prior approval of the Permanent Secretary of the Ministry concerned or the Chairperson/Chief Executive Officer is required before public employees may engage in any form of business/employement outside official duties. (Article 27 of the Code of Ethics Section C of the Public Administration Act (2009) (last amended in 2019))
Post-employment No. Absent from legal framework.
Simultaneously holding policy-making position and policy-executing position No. Absent from legal framework.
Participating in official decision-making processes that affect private interests Yes. If a potential or actual conflict of interest arise upon assuming office, change in duties or due to a change in circumstances, the public employee has to inform his senior in writing within a week. (Article 11 and 12 of the Code of Ethics Section C of the Public Administration Act (2009) (last amended in 2019))
Concurrent employment of family members in public sector No. Absent from legal framework.

Filing frequency

Filing required upon taking office No. Absent from legal framework.
Filing required upon leaving office No. Absent from legal framework.
Filing required annually No. Absent from legal framework.
Ad hoc filing required upon change in assets or conflicts of interest Yes. If a potential or actual conflict of interest arise upon assuming office, change in duties or due to a change in circumstances, the public employee has to inform his senior in writing within a week. (Article 11 and 12 of the Code of Ethics Section C of the Public Administration Act (2009) (last amended in 2019))

Sanctions

Sanctions stipulated for late filing (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) No. Absent from legal framework. While not always framed as “declaration sanctions,” breaches of conflict-of-interest and ethics duties are subject to disciplinary procedures (Public Administration Act (2009, as amended), disciplinary provisions + Code of Ethics)
Sanctions stipulated for non-filing (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) No. Absent from legal framework. While not always framed as “declaration sanctions,” breaches of conflict-of-interest and ethics duties are subject to disciplinary procedures (Public Administration Act (2009, as amended), disciplinary provisions + Code of Ethics)
Sanctions stipulated for false disclosure (fines, administrative, and/or criminal) No. Absent from legal framework. While not always framed as “declaration sanctions,” breaches of conflict-of-interest and ethics duties are subject to disciplinary procedures (Public Administration Act (2009, as amended), disciplinary provisions + Code of Ethics)

Monitoring and Oversight

Depository body explicitly identified Yes. If a potential or actual conflict of interest arise upon assuming office, change in duties or due to a change in circumstances, the public employee has to inform his senior in writing within a week. (Article 11 and 12 of the Code of Ethics Section C of the Public Administration Act (2009) (last amended in 2019))
Enforcement body explicitly identified No. Absent from legal framework.
Some agency assigned responsibility for verifying submission No. Absent from legal framework.
Some agency assigned responsibility for verifying accuracy No. Absent from legal framework.

Public access to declarations

Public availability No. Absent from legal framework.
Timing of information release specified No. Absent from legal framework.
Location(s) of access specified No. Absent from legal framework.
Cost of access specified No. Absent from legal framework.

Legislation

Standards in Public Life Act of 2018_ENG (English)pdf
Public Administration Act No. III of 2019_ENG (English)pdf

*Last update: 2017


Conflict of Interest

As in Malta’s financial disclosure legislation, no restrictions for conflicts of interests apply to the Head of State. Meanwhile, Ministers and Civil Servants are obliged by law to avoid conflicts of interests in general. Additionally, Ministers, MPs and Civil Servants may not accept gifts. The Code of Ethics of Ministers, Parliamentary Secretaries and Parliamentary Assistants (2015) also prevents Ministers from pursuing any second employment. This would include owning a private or public company, or holding advisory positions. Similarly, MPs are prevented from being party to a private enterprise by the Constitution (1964, last amended in 2015). While no specific limits are specified for Civil Servant’s secondary employment, they must ensure not to pursue any activities which cast doubt on their integrity after ending tenure. This is laid down in the Public Administration Act (2009, last amended 2016).

All the while, no sanctions for violating conflicts of interests are specified for Ministers or Civil Servants. If Members of Parliament do not alleviate secondary activities in a company, they are forced to resign from their seat. However, no monitoring or enforcement bodies exist for any public officials. 

Quantitative Data

Primary Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Restrictions303535354538
Sanctions333333331725
Monitoring and Oversight383838382575

Alternative Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Head of State000000
Ministers384141412364
Members of Parliament384141414164
Civil servants595959595154

Values lie in range between 0 and 100, higher values implying higher legislation comprehensiveness


Qualitative Data

We are frequently reviewing and refining our data, so in case you notice any mistake in our assessment, feel free to send us an email by clicking the button ()

Head of State

Restrictions

General restriction on conflict of interest No. Absent from legal framework.
Accepting gifts No. Absent from legal framework.
Private firm ownership and/or stock holdings No. Absent from legal framework.
Ownership of state-owned enterprises (SOEs) No. Absent from legal framework.
Holding government contracts No. Absent from legal framework.
Board member, advisor, or company officer of private firm No. Absent from legal framework.
Post-employment No. Absent from legal framework.
Simultaneously holding policy-making position and policy-executing position No. Absent from legal framework.
Participating in official decision-making processes that affect private interests No. Absent from legal framework.
Assisting family or friends in obtaining employment in public sector No. Absent from legal framework.

Sanctions

Fines are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.
Administrative sanctions are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.
Penal sanctions are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.

Monitoring and Oversight

Monitoring body specified (guidance, training, data tracking) No. Absent from legal framework.
Enforcement body specified (sanctions, hearings) No. Absent from legal framework.

Ministers

Restrictions

General restriction on conflict of interest Yes. Ministers shall avoid entering into conflicts of interest between the public interest and their private interest and shall provide complete and correct information to Parliament, to the Cabinet and the public in general.Ministers shall ensure that there is no conflict between their public duties and private interests, financial or otherwise, and it is the personal responsibility of every individual Minister to decide whether steps have to be taken and what needs to be done in order for there not to be such conflict of interest. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries), Arts. 5.7 and 8.1)
Accepting gifts Yes. No Minister shall accept gifts, donations, hospitality or services from anyone, that may place him under an obligation towards such person or persons and this shall also apply to immediate family members of the Minister. In case of doubt, the Prime Minister shall be consulted. Ministers shall not normally accept decorations from foreign countries, except with the permission of the Prime Minister. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries), Arts. 8.4 and 8.5)
Private firm ownership and/or stock holdings No. There is no specification about private firm ownership and/or stock holdings. However, upon appointment, a Minister is expected not to continue with his private work and shall dedicate all his time to Government work. A Minister appointed to office shall also provide a statement of his assets and interests to the Cabinet Secretary on the relative form. Any interest that may otherwise give rise to a perception of conflict of interest and any actual conflict of interest shall also be indicated to the Cabinet Secretary. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries), Arts. 7.2 and 7.3)
Ownership of state-owned enterprises (SOEs) No. Absent from legal framework.
Holding government contracts Yes. Upon appointment, a Minister is expected not to continue with his/her private work and shall dedicate all his/her time to Government work. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries), Art. 7.2)
Board member, advisor, or company officer of private firm Yes. Upon appointment, a Minister is expected not to continue with his/her private work and shall dedicate all his/her time to Government work. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries), Art. 7.2)
Post-employment No. Absent from legal framework.
Simultaneously holding policy-making position and policy-executing position No. Absent from legal framework.
Participating in official decision-making processes that affect private interests Yes. No Minister shall take part in the taking of decisions that affect his family members, or other persons close to him and no Minister shall be improperly conditioned in his decisions by a conflict of interest of a financial nature or otherwise, whether involving him or persons close to him, or make improper use of information received because of his office and during the carrying out of his duties, particularly if this is done in order to unfairly favour any person or persons to the detriment of others. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries), Art. 8.6)
Assisting family or friends in obtaining employment in public sector Yes. No Minister shall take part in the taking of decisions that affect his family members, or other persons close to him and no Minister shall be improperly conditioned in his decisions by a conflict of interest of a financial nature or otherwise, whether involving him or persons close to him, or make improper use of information received because of his office and during the carrying out of his duties, particularly if this is done in order to unfairly favour any person or persons to the detriment of others. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Second Schedule (Code of Ethics for Ministers and Parliamentary Secretaries), Art. 8.6)

Sanctions

Fines are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.
Administrative sanctions are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior Yes. As members of the House of Representatives, Ministers are subject to the following sanctions, in case the Standing Committee of the House of Representatives finds that there has been a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty (after granting the person concerned the right to make submissions): (i) recommend that the said House should direct the member to rectify any breach; (ii) demand an apology in writing to be made to the Committee; (iii) demand an apology by way of a personal statement on the floor of the House; (iv) demand the repayment of or payment for resources improperly used; (v) recommend that the House of Representatives takes any other measure it may deem fit. (Constitution of Malta of 1964 (as of 2020), Art. 80 Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Art. 28)
Penal sanctions are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.

Monitoring and Oversight

Monitoring body specified (guidance, training, data tracking) Yes. The Commissioner for Standards in Public Life examines declarations of assets and financial interests, investigates conduct, and issues rulings on proposed actions under the Standards in Public Life Act. (the Commissioner for Standards in Public Life examines declarations of assets and financial interests, investigates conduct, and issues rulings on proposed actions under the Standards in Public Life Act.)
Enforcement body specified (sanctions, hearings) Yes. The Commissioner investigates alleged breaches and reports prima facie cases to Parliament’s Standing Committee for Standards in Public Life, which may take remedial action under the Act. (Standards in Public Life Act, arts. 4, 13, 25; Commissioner for Standards in Public Life, Annual Report 2024)

Members of Parliament

Restrictions

General restriction on conflict of interest No. Absent from legal framework.
Accepting gifts Yes. A member of the House of Representatives shall not accept gifts from persons, groups or companies that had any direct or indirect intent in legislation before the House of Representatives. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives), Art. 5 (2) (b))
Private firm ownership and/or stock holdings Yes. Every member of the House of Representatives will annually indicate in a register, which will be purposely kept by the Speaker and open to inspection by the public, shares in commercial companies, investments including money deposited in banks and any other form of pecuniary interest. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives), Art. 5 (1) (c))
Ownership of state-owned enterprises (SOEs) No. Absent from legal framework.
Holding government contracts Yes. No person shall be qualified to be elected as a member of the House of Representatives if he is a party to, or is a partner with unlimited liability in a partnership or a director or manager of a company which is a party to, a contract with the Government of Malta being a contract of works or a contract for the supply of merchandise to be used in the service of the public and has not, within one month before the date of election, published in the Gazette a notice setting out the nature of any such contract, and his interest, or the interest of any such partnership or company, therein. (Constitution of Malta of 1964 (as of 2020), Art. 54 (1) (c))
Board member, advisor, or company officer of private firm Yes. Every member of the House of Representatives will annually indicate in a register, which will be purposely kept by the Speaker and open to inspection by the public, directorships or other official positions in commercial companies, associations, boards, co-operatives or other groups, even if voluntary associations. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives), Art. 5 (1) (d))
Post-employment No. Absent from legal framework.
Simultaneously holding policy-making position and policy-executing position Yes. No person shall be qualified to be elected as a member of the House of Representatives, save as otherwise provided by Parliament, if s/he holds or is acting in any public office or is a member of the armed forces of the Government of Malta. (Constitution of Malta of 1964 (as of 2020), Art. 54 (1) (c))
Participating in official decision-making processes that affect private interests Yes. A member of the House of Representatives who has a professional interest, including work interest consultancy, management or any form of connection, pecuniary or otherwise, with persons, groups or companies, that have a direct interest in legislation before the House, shall declare his interest in the House, at the first opportunity, before a vote is taken on the Second Reading of a Bill. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), First Schedule (Code of Ethics of Members of the House of Representatives), Art. 5 (2) (a))
Assisting family or friends in obtaining employment in public sector No. Absent from legal framework.

Sanctions

Fines are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.
Administrative sanctions are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior Yes. A Member of Parliament loses his/her seat if s/he becomes a party to a works or supply contract with the Government of Malta. Additionally, they are subject to the following sanctions, in case the Standing Committee of the House of Representatives finds that there has been a breach of the Code of Ethics or of any statutory or ethical duty (after granting the person concerned the right to make submissions): (i) recommend that the said House should direct the member to rectify any breach; (ii) demand an apology in writing to be made to the Committee; (iii) demand an apology by way of a personal statement on the floor of the House; (iv) demand the repayment of or payment for resources improperly used; (v) recommend that the House of Representatives takes any other measure it may deem fit. (Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (as of 2020), Art. 28 Constitution of Malta of 1964 (as of 2020), Art. 55 (1) (c))
Penal sanctions are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.

Monitoring and Oversight

Monitoring body specified (guidance, training, data tracking) Yes. The Commissioner for Standards in Public Life examines MPs’ declarations of assets and financial interests, investigates conduct, and issues rulings under the Standards in Public Life Act. (Standards in Public Life Act, arts. 4, 13, 25; Commissioner for Standards in Public Life, Annual Report 2024.)
Enforcement body specified (sanctions, hearings) Yes. The Commissioner investigates alleged breaches and reports prima facie cases to Parliament’s Standing Committee for Standards in Public Life, which may take remedial action under the Act. (Standards in Public Life Act, arts. 4, 13, 25; Commissioner for Standards in Public Life, Annual Report 2024.)

Civil servants

Restrictions

General restriction on conflict of interest Yes. Public employees and board members shall ensure that no conflict, real or apparent, arises between their official duties and any other occupations, activities or interests (financial or otherwise) that they or their close relations may have. Such a conflict arises if a public employee or board member’s ability to faithfully discharge their duties is, or can reasonably be, called into question on account of such other occupations, activities or interests, including instances where the public employee or board member is placed in a position to be biased or is seen as potentially being biased. If such a conflict arises, the public employee or board member shall make this conflict known to their superiors and take such action as may be necessary to resolve the conflict. (Act No. III Replacing the Public Administrative Act of 2019 (as of 2020), Art. 5 and First Schedule (Code of Ethics for Public Employees and Board Members), Arts. 10 and 11)
Accepting gifts Yes. Public employees and board members shall refuse any gift, payment, compensation, privilege or any form of solicitation unless, where gifts are concerned, they are token in nature and are not such as to serve as an inducement or influence the execution of the duties of a public employee or board member, now or in the future. (Act No. III Replacing the Public Administrative Act of 2019 (as of 2020), Art. 5 and First Schedule (Code of Ethics for Public Employees and Board Members), Art. 9 (d))
Private firm ownership and/or stock holdings No. Absent from legal framework.
Ownership of state-owned enterprises (SOEs) No. Absent from legal framework.
Holding government contracts No. Absent from legal framework.
Board member, advisor, or company officer of private firm No. Absent from legal framework.
Post-employment Yes. Former public employees bound by an undertaking shall not, for a period of up to two years after leaving public employment as specified therein, switch sides by entering into a relationship of profit with any private enterprise or non-government body with which the former public employees dealt in an official capacity during a period of up to five years immediately prior to their leaving public employment. (Act No. III Replacing the Public Administrative Act of 2019 (as of 2020), Art. 5 and First Schedule (Code of Ethics for Public Employees and Board Members), Art. 12)
Simultaneously holding policy-making position and policy-executing position No. Absent from legal framework.
Participating in official decision-making processes that affect private interests No. Absent from legal framework.
Assisting family or friends in obtaining employment in public sector No. Absent from legal framework.

Sanctions

Fines are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.
Administrative sanctions are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior Yes. Non-compliance with the Code of Ethics may result in: (a) disciplinary proceedings, where public employees are concerned; (b) the termination of the appointment to boards, or the imposition of certain conditions on their appointments, where board members are concerned; (c) the execution of relevant provisions deriving from any applicable undertakings; and, or (d) the initiation of criminal proceedings, where this is called for in respect of serious breaches of trust and, or non-compliance, where both public employees or board members are concerned. (Act No. III Replacing the Public Administrative Act of 2019 (as of 2020), Art. 5 (3) and First Schedule (Code of Ethics for Public Employees and Board Members), Art. 23)
Penal sanctions are stipulated for violations of COI regulations restricting behavior No. Absent from legal framework.

Monitoring and Oversight

Monitoring body specified (guidance, training, data tracking) Yes. The Principal Permanent Secretary may issue directives aimed at upholding and ensuring compliance with the Code of Ethics and, with the concurrence of the Minister responsible for the particular board or commission, he may also issue such directives with respect to boards and commissions. The head of a department, specialised unit, agency or government entity may, with the approval of the Principal Permanent Secretary, make rules of ethical conduct, complementary and in addition to the Code of Ethics, relating to the circumstances particular to that organisation, and the term Code of Ethics in relation to public employees in that organisation shall include such rules. (Act No. III Replacing the Public Administrative Act of 2019 (as of 2020), Art. 5 (4) (5))
Enforcement body specified (sanctions, hearings) Yes. Disciplinary matters in the Public Service fall within the constitutional and statutory framework of the Public Service Commission, while breaches of the Public Administration Act code may lead to disciplinary proceedings. (Constitution of Malta, Chapter X; Public Administration Act (Cap. 595); Public Service regulatory framework.)

Legislation

Constitution of Malta of 1964 (English )pdf
Standards in Public Life Act of 2018 (English )pdf
Act No. III Replacing the Public Administrative Act of 2019 (English )pdf

*Last update: 2017


Freedom of Information

The access to information framework in Malta is established by the Freedom of Information Act (2009, amended 2012). The Government and its ministries and departments are included, as well as the parliament. The judiciary is covered although the Attorney General's office is excluded. The law covers bodies or persons which provide services to the public on behalf of the Government or are financed by the Government. However, information held by many public institutions is excluded from the scope of the law, eg Electoral Commission, Employment Commission, National Archives, Public Service Commission, Office of the Attorney General, National Audit Office, Security Service; Broadcasting Authority or the Ombudsman. Information held by these bodies is regulated by other laws.

Specific exemptions to disclosure are outlined in the aforementioned FOI law, Official Secrets Act (1923), and Data Protection Act (2002). However, there is a public interest test whereby exemptions to disclosure may be overridden in cases where the public interest outweighs the prohibition on disclosure.

Appeals may be submitted to public authorities through a specific complaint process. Applicants also have the right to seek an investigation and review by the Information and Data Protection Commissioner. Decisions of the Commissioner may be subject to appeal through the Court of Appeal.

The Commissioner can levy fines to those who fail to comply with his/her notices. Destroying evidence with the aim of preventing the disclosure of information to an applicant under the FOIA may also be punishable with imprisonment.

Under the Freedom of Information Act the Minister responsible for FOI and data protection (Minister for Social Dialogue, Consumer Affairs and Civil Liberties), shall issue a code of practice providing guidance to public authorities. The law also allows the Ministry, in consultation with the Information Commissioner, to make regulations on a range of matters of implementation.

Quantitative Data

Primary Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Scope and Coverage77775682
Information access and release00004271
Exceptions and Overrides3317171750100
Sanctions for non-compliance0000067
Monitoring and Oversight0000083

Values lie in range between 0 and 100, higher values implying higher legislation comprehensiveness


Qualitative Data

We are frequently reviewing and refining our data, so in case you notice any mistake in our assessment, feel free to send us an email by clicking the button ()

Scope and Coverage

Scope of disclosure

Existence of legal right to access Yes. 3. Any eligible person has a right of access to documents held by public authorities in accordance with and subject to the provisions of this Act. (Article 3 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
"Information" or "Documents" is defined Yes. "document" means any article that is held by a public authority and on which information has been recorded in whatever form, including electronic data, images, scale models and other visual representations, and audio or video recordings, regardless of whether the information can be read, seen, heard or retrieved with or without the aid of any other article or device; (Article 2 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Proactive disclosure is specified No. Public bodies are required to publish information about their structure and a statement of the kinds of information held and description of manuals held. The Minister responsible for FOI may request further information to be published but beyond that there are no pro-active publication requirements. (Article 17(1) &(2) Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))

Coverage of public and private sectors

Executive branch Yes. The Government and its ministries and departments are included but information held by Local Councils and in the national archives is excluded. (Article 2 and Article 5 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Legislative branch Yes. The legislature is covered by the law. (Article 2 and Article 5 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Judicial branch Yes. The judiciary is covered although the Attorney General's office is excluded. (Article 2 and Article 5 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Other public bodies No. Information held by many public institutions is excluded from the scope of the law, eg Electoral Commission, Employment Commission, National Archives, Public Service Commission, Office of the Attorney General, National Audit Office, Security Service; Broadcasting Authority or the Ombudsman. Information held by these bodies is regulated by other laws. (Article 2 and Article 5 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Private sector Yes. The law covers bodies or persons which provide services to the public on behalf of the Government or another public authority or projects undertaken by them but financed by the Government or another public authority. (Article 2 and Article 18 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))

Access to specific documents (subject to reactive and/or proactive disclosure)

Draft legal instruments Yes. Pro-active publication is not required by the law. Since the legislature is covered and draft laws fall under the scope of public information they should be covered by the law for reactive disclosure. (Article 2 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Enacted legal instruments Yes. The Constitution requires a law to be published in the Government Gazette before it comes into force. Enacted laws would also fall within the scope of the FOIA since the legislature is covered. (Article 72(4) Constitution of Malta, 1964 Article 2 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496) )
Annual budgets Yes. Government must publish its annual budget. Other public authority expenditure would be covered by the FOIA for reactive disclosure. (Article 16(3) Fiscal Responsibility Act 2014 Article 2 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Annual chart of accounts (actual expenditures) Yes. Government must proactively publish expenditure on a monthly basis. Other public authority budgets would be covered by the FOIA for reactive disclosure. (Article 39(6) Fiscal Responsibility Act 2014 Article 2 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Annual reports of public entities and programs Yes. Annual reports would be covered by the FOIA for reactive disclosure. (Article 2 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))

Information access and release

Procedural access

Universal access (agencies, citizens and non-citizens) No. Access to information is available to an "eligible person" which is a citizen of Malta or someone who has been resident for at least 5 years. Applicants have to be Maltese, EU citizens or citizens of another countries with which there is a treaty that includes the right to be treated as a Maltese citizen. It does not appear to include legal entities. (Article 2 and Article 3, Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Type of request is specified (written, electronic, oral) Yes. Applicants must be in writing or by email. (Article 6(a), Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Assistance to requesters must be provided by law (includes barriers due to language differences, illiteracy, complexity of requests, etc.) Yes. It is the duty of the public authority to take reasonable steps to assist an applicant with their information request free of charge. (Article 7 and Article 41(2)(a) Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Cost of access is specified (free, request fees, photocopying costs, other administrative costs) Yes. The fees are clearly set out in a separate regulation to the Act. (Article 9, Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496) Fees charged by public authorities for access to documents regulations 21 April 2010 (496.1))

Deadlines for release of information

20-day response deadline Yes. Responses must be delivered within 20 working days (Article 10, Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Agency granted right to extend response time Yes. If the request necessitates a search through a large number of documents, or consultations necessary to make a decision on the request are such that a proper response to the request cannot reasonably be made within the original time limit. (Article 11, Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Maximum total response time of no more than 40 days No. An extension period of up to 40 days is allowed making a total of 60 days. (Article 11, Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))

Exceptions and Overrides

Exemptions to disclosure

Existence of secrecy/states secrets law Yes. The Official Secrets Act 23 February 1923 (The Official Secrets Act 23 February 1923)
Existence of personal privacy/data law Yes. The Constitution protects the right to a private life. The Data Protection Act protects use of and access to personal data. (Article 32(c) Constitution Data Protection Act 2018)
Specific exemptions to disclosure Yes. Exemptions include information covering personal data, information which cannot be disclosed under any other law, national security, defence or international relations, the work of the security services, Cabinet documents, law enforcement and the protection of public safety, documents subject to legal professional privilege or containing material obtained in confidence, business affairs, the economy and research, internal working documents, documents affecting the financial or property interests of public authorities or certain operations of public authorities, fragile archival documents or those compromising personal safety. (Article 5(3), Article 13(1) & (2) and Articles 29-38 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496) Article 23 and Article 27 Data Protection Act 2018 (440) Article 6(4)(a) The Official Secrets Act 23 February 1923)
Public Interest test: Specified exemptions to disclosure may be overridden in cases where disclosure of information benefits the public interest.

Appeals

Appeals allowed within public entities Yes. The law does not explicitly provide for internal appeal mechanisms but requires the Minister responsible to draft a Code of Practice for public authorities. This requires authorities to establish rapid procedures for dealing with complaints about the handling of requests for information. The supplementary legislation to the FOIA - on timeframes for lodging complaints - specifies a 30 day limit for submitting an internal appeal. (Article 41(3) Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496) Article 8 Freedom of Information Act (496) Code of Practice for Public Authorities 31 May 2012 Article 3 Timeframe for Lodging Complaints and Requests for Investigation and Review Regulations 21 April 2010 (496.2))
Independent, non-judicial appeals mechanism, e.g., information commissioner. Does not include Ombudsman unless appeals decisions are binding. Yes. An applicant has the right to seek an investigation and review by the Information and Data Protection Commissioner of the refusal. (Article 15(b) and Article 23 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Judicial appeals mechanism Yes. Decisions of the Information and Data Protection Commissioner under this Act shall be subject to appeal to the Court of Appeal as provided for by article 51 of the Data Protection Act. (Article 40 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))

Sanctions for non-compliance

Administrative sanctions are specified for violations of disclosure requirements No. The Information and Data Protecton Commissioner can levy administrative fines on those who fail to comply with his/her notices. (Article 27 and Article 43 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496) )
Fines are specified for violations of disclosure requirements Yes. The Information and Data Protecton Commissioner can levy administrative fines to those who fail to comply with his/her notices. The Criminal Code applies to any person who embezzles, destroys, mutilates or purloins a document with the intention of preventing the disclosure of information to an applicant under the FOIA and is punishable with a fine or imprisonment. (Article 27 and Article 43 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496) Article 144 Criminal Code)
Criminal sanctions are specified for violations of disclosure requirements Yes. The Criminal Code applies to any person who embezzles, destroys, mutilates or purloins a document with the intention of preventing the disclosure of information to an applicant under the FOIA and is punishable with a fine or imprisonment. (Article 144 Criminal Code Article 43 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))

Monitoring and Oversight

Information officers must be appointed in public agencies Yes. Public authorities must nominate a FOI officer and at least one alternate FOI officer. The law also provides for the Minister to issue a code of practice for public bodies which includes guidance on providing assistance to requesters. (Section 1 Freedom of Information Act (496) Code of Practice for Public Authorities 31 May 2012)
Public body that is responsible for applying sanctions Yes. The Information and Data Protection Commissioner is responsible for levying fines for non-compliance with his/her notices. (Article 27 and Article 43 Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Public body that is responsible for public outreach (raising public awareness) Yes. The Information and Data Protection Commissioner is responsible for overseeing implementation of the law and promoting good practice. (Article 21, Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Nodal agency for RTI (implementation support/compliance within public sector). Does not include Ombudsman. Yes. Under the Freedom of Information Act the Minister reponsible for FOI and data protection (Minister for Social DIalogue, Consumer Affairs and Civil Liberties), shall issue a code of practice providing guidance to public authorities as to the practice which it would, in his/her opinion, be desirable for them to follow in connection with the discharge of public authorities’ functions under the FOIA. The law also allows the Ministry, in consultation with the Information Commissioner, to make regulations on a range of matters of implementation. (Article 41 and Article 42, Freedom of Information Act 31 July 2009, amended 2012 (496))
Ombudsman involvement in implementation is specified by law No. Absent from legal framework.
Reporting of data and/or implementation is required Yes. 1.6 FOI Officers shall be required to submit a report to their respective Principal FOI Officers containing the information listed in article 21(5) of the Act. 1.5 FOI Officers are required to provide to the Information and Data Protection Commissioner, the report referred to in paragragh 1.6 of this Code for their Public Authority. (Section 1.5 and 1.6 Freedom of Information Act (496) Code of Practice for Public Authorities 31 May 2012)

Legislation

Constitution of Malta of 1964_ENG (English)pdf
Freedom of Information Act of 2008_ENG (English)pdf
Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2014_ENG (English)pdf
Official Secrets Act of 1923_ENG (English)pdf
Code of Practice for Public authorities of 2010_ENG (English)pdf
Data Protection Act of 2018_ENG (English)pdf
Criminal Code of 1857_ENG (English)pdf
Legal Notice No. 158 of 2010_ENG (English)pdf
Legal Notice No. 159 of 2010_ENG (English)pdf

*Last update: 2017


Public Procurement

The Maltese public procurement system is regulated by the Public Procurement Regulations (Legal Notice 352 as of 201). The public procurement body is the Department of Contracts under the Ministry of Finance.

The lowest minimum thresholds for conducting a public procurement tender are:

▪         EUR 10,000 for goods, works and services

The minimum number of bidders is 5 for restricted procedures and 3 for negotiated procedures and competitive dialogue. The minimum submission period is 35 days for open procedures, 30 days for restricted procedures and 30 for negotiated procedures from dispatch date. The final beneficial owners do not have to be disclosed when placing a bid.

There is a case for preferential treatment, as environmental sustainability factors can be considered and the number of contracts assigned to SMEs can be monitored . There are also several options for bid exclusion: bankruptcy, conviction of offence concerning professional conduct, guilty of grave professional misconduct, outstanding taxes and social security liabilities, serious misrepresentation in supplying information required under these regulations. Bids can be also excluded because of abnormally low bid prices.

In the bid evaluation phase, there are conflict of interest restrictions on the composition of the evaluation committee. However, no form of independence of  the contracting authority is mandated for the evaluation committee.

There is a payable fee in case of an arbitration procedure, amounting between EUR 400-50,000, but court decisions are not publicly released.

Quantitative Data

Primary Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Scope2936519968
Information availability9494944493
Evaluation1001001007581
Open competition8383836167
Institutional arrangements3636362936

Values lie in range between 0 and 100, higher values implying higher legislation comprehensiveness


Qualitative Data

We are frequently reviewing and refining our data, so in case you notice any mistake in our assessment, feel free to send us an email by clicking the button ()

Scope

Threshold - lowest PP

What is the minimum contract value above which the public procurement law is applied? (Product type GOODS) EUR 5,000. The supply procurement process is administered by the contracting authority directly if the estimated value does not exceed EUR 5,000 (direct purchase), EUR 10,000 (call for quotations), or between EUR 10,000 and EUR 143,000 (departmental tender); above EUR 143,000, the DOC administers the process unless the authority qualifies under Schedule 16 of S.L. 601.03; above EU goods thresholds, full EU rules and OJEU publication apply. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 9(1), 100–103 and Schedule 5)
What is the minimum contract value above which the public procurement law is applied? (Product type WORKS) EUR 5,000. Works procurement follows the same tiered structure for below‑EU‑threshold contracts; above the EU works threshold (updated from EUR 5,382,000 to EUR 5,538,000 in 2024 and EUR 5,538,000 from 1 January 2024), full EU procedures and OJEU publication are mandatory. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 9(1), 100–103 and Schedule 5)
What is the minimum contract value above which the public procurement law is applied? (Product type SERVICES) EUR 5,000. Service contracts follow the same tiered domestic structure; above EU service thresholds (EUR 143,000 for central government, EUR 221,000 for sub‑central from 1 January 2024), full EU procedures and OJEU publication apply; social and other specific services follow the light‑touch regime from EUR 750,000. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 9(1), 100–103 and Schedule 5)

Threshold - by PP type

What are the minimum application thresholds for the procurement type? (Entity: PUBLIC SECTOR) EUR 143,000. For classical contracting authorities, the DOC must administer procurement above EUR 143,000 unless the authority is listed in Schedule 16; between EUR 10,000 and EUR 143,000, the authority uses departmental tenders; below EUR 10,000 simpler procedures apply. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 9(1), 100–103 and Schedule 5)
What are the minimum application thresholds for the procurement type? (Entity: UTILITIES) EUR 443,000. Utilities procurement under S.L. 601.05 uses EU utilities thresholds; the applicable threshold for supply and service contracts was raised to EUR 443,000 in 2024 (from EUR 431,000), then adjusted to EUR 443,000 from 1 January 2024; works threshold was updated to EUR 5,538,000 in 2024 and EUR 5,538,000 from 1 January 2024. (Public Procurement Utilities Regulations (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regs. 17(1)(e) and 88)
What are the minimum application thresholds for the procurement type? (Entity: DEFENCE) EUR 2,500. Defence and security procurement under S.L. 601.11 applies EU‑aligned thresholds for contracts above the applicable EU values; below EU thresholds, the domestic tiered system applies with a minimum departmental tender threshold of EUR 2,500 for this sector. (Public Procurement of Contracting Authorities in the Fields of Defence and Security Regulations (S.L. 601.11), Regulation 9 and Schedule 9)

Threshold - by product type

What are the minimum application thresholds for the procurement type? (Product type GOODS) EUR 143,000. For goods, contracts above EUR 143,000 must involve the DOC (or the Sectoral Procurement Directorate); above EU goods thresholds full EU obligations apply. (S.L. 601.03, Regs. 9(1), 100–103 and Schedule 5)
What are the minimum application thresholds for the procurement type? (Product type WORKS) EUR 143,000. For works, the same domestic DOC‑involvement threshold of EUR 143,000 applies; above the EU works threshold (EUR 5,538,000 from 1 January 2024), full EU procedures and OJEU publication are required. (S.L. 601.03, Regs. 9(1), 100–103 and Schedule 5)
What are the minimum application thresholds for the procurement type? (Product type SERVICES) EUR 143,000. For services, the domestic DOC‑involvement threshold of EUR 143,000 applies; above EU thresholds full EU procedures apply, with a separate light‑touch regime from EUR 750,000 for social and other specific services. (S.L. 601.03, Regs. 9(1), 100–103 and Schedule 5)

Information availability

Publishing and record keeping

Is there a requirement that tender documents must published in full? Yes. The contracting authority shall by electronic means publish tender documents in full on the government's e-procurement platform; where the estimated value falls under Schedule 9 EU thresholds, the authority for the tendering process shall provide electronic access free of charge from the date of the notice or the invitation to confirm interest is sent; the text of the notice shall indicate the internet address at which the contract documents are available. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 49)
Are any of these documents published online at a central place? Yes. The government's e-procurement platform (https://www.etenders.gov.mt, https://www.contracts.gov.mt and https://www.etenders.gov.mt) and the Official Gazette serve as the central publication channels; notices above EU thresholds must also be published in the OJEU/TED. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 41 and 43; Public Procurement Utilities Regulations (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regs. 41 and 43)
Is it mandatory to keep all of these records? -Public notices of bidding opportunities, -Bidding documents and addenda, -Bid opening records, -Bid evaluation reports, -Formal appeals by bidders and outcomes, -Final signed contract documents and addenda and amendments, -Claims and dispute resolutions, -Final payments, -Disbursement data (as required by the country’s financial management system) Yes. Contracting authorities shall ensure the documentation of procurement procedures; they shall keep sufficient documents to justify decisions at all stages for at least three years from contract award, ensuring availability for audit by the Public Contracts Review Board (PCRB) and national audit authorities. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 112 and 113; S.L. 601.05, Reg. 112 and 241(20))
Are contracts awarded within a framework agreement published? Yes. In the case of framework agreements concluded in accordance with Regulations 167 to 173, the contracting authority need not send a group notice for the results of the award procedure for each procurement based on that agreement; however, it is required that the authority responsible for the tendering process shall group notices on the result of the procurement process on a quarterly basis; in that case, contracting authorities shall send the grouped notices within thirty days of the end of each quarter. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 43(3); Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulation 65(3))

Sub-contracting

Is it mandatory to publish information on subcontractors (ie names) in some cases? Yes. Names of subcontractors cannot be considered confidential information, which suggests they should be made public; furthermore, the procured departments or authorities are required to disclose information on the value and proportion of the contract to be subcontracted; contracting authorities retain the right to request information on draft subcontractors; at the latest when the performance of the contract commences, the contracting authority shall require the main contractor to indicate to the contracting authority the name, contact details and legal representatives of its subcontractors. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 62(2), 82(1), 113(4) and 114; Public Procurement Utilities Legislation (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Schedule 9 Part D and 83)
If yes, what is the threshold for publication (i.e. the % of total contract value subcontracted)? For example, if the threshold is 75%, and you have subcontracted out only 40% of your contract, no disclosure is required. Consultant will insert 75% in the short answer column. No percentage or value threshold exists above which subcontractor names must be publicly disclosed; the obligation applies regardless of the subcontracted proportion. (S.L. 601.03, Regs. 62(2), 82(1), 113(4) and 114)

Evaluation

Preferential treatment

Is there a ban on mentioning specific companies or brands in tender specification/call for tender? Yes. Unless justified by the subject‑matter of the contract, technical specifications shall not refer to a specific make or source, or a particular process which characterises the products or services supplied by a specific economic operator, or to trade marks, patents, types or a specific origin or production with the effect of favouring or eliminating certain undertakings or certain products; such reference is permitted on an exceptional basis only when it is not possible to describe the subject‑matter with sufficient precision, and must be accompanied by the words "or equivalent"; reference to sub‑regulation (3) is not possible unless accompanied by the words "or equivalent". (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Reg. 39(4)(5)(c); Public Procurement Utilities Legislation (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulation 49(4)(b)(c))
Is there a preferential treatment for small-to-medium enterprises (SMEs)? Yes. Contracting authorities shall treat economic operators equally and without discrimination and shall act in a transparent and proportionate manner; moreover, economic operators that are already vetted by the Department of Contracts may rely on their already‑submitted documentation when participating in calls; the OECD 2023 review recommended further SME‑specific measures which are being considered. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 12(1) (c) and Schedule 9 Parts B and F; Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulation 57)
Is there a preferential treatment for local/national companies? (companies from other EU MS are considered foreign companies) No. Contracting authorities shall treat economic operators equally and without discrimination, regardless of nationality, and shall act in a transparent and proportionate manner; no preference for local or national companies is permitted; economic operators that would be required to be either natural or legal persons. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 12(1)(c) and Schedule 9(1); Public Procurement Utilities Legislation (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulations 55 and 57)
Is there a specific set of rules for green/sustainable procurement? Yes. Environmental considerations are a mandatory element: when assessing economic operators' technical abilities and their compliance with environmental management systems, contracting authorities may require proof of the certification by independent bodies attesting compliance with applicable standards; Malta's Green PP National Action Plan (2019–2023) set voluntary environmental criteria for major product groups. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 12(3), 31(b), 39(2); Public Procurement Utilities Legislation (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regs. 1(4), 19, 34(2), 234, 238(2), 346)

Bid evaluation

Are there restrictions on allowable grounds for tenderer exclusion? Yes. Grounds for mandatory exclusion include: participation in criminal organisation; corruption; fraud; terrorist offences; money laundering; child labour and human trafficking; judgments having the nature of a tax subsidy for a participatory criminal organisation; non‑payment of taxes or social security contributions; grave professional misconduct; false declaration; significant deficiencies in performance of prior contracts; conflict of interest that cannot otherwise be remedied. Discretionary grounds include: bankruptcy or insolvency; breach of obligations relating to environmental, social and labour law; anti‑competitive conduct confirmed by a competition authority. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulations 101 and 141; S.L. 601.05, as amended in 2020, Regulation 15)
Are some bids automatically excluded? e.g., lowest/highest price; unusually low price, etc. No. An economic operator shall be excluded from participation in a procurement procedure where it has established or is otherwise made aware thereof that the economic operator has been subject to a final judgment; the contracting authority may only reject the tender where the evidence supplied does not satisfactorily account for the low level of prices or costs draft in the tender where tenders appear to be abnormally low in relation to the goods, services or works – but rejection is not automatic and the authority must first request clarification. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulations 160(2) and 174)
Is scoring criteria published? Yes. The contracting authority shall specify, in the contract documents, the relative weighting that it gives to each of the criteria chosen to identify the most economically advantageous tender, except where this is identified on the basis of price alone; these weightings may be expressed by providing for a range with an appropriate maximum spread; where weighting is not possible for objective reasons, the contracting authority indicates the criteria in decreasing order of importance. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 110(3); Public Procurement Utilities Legislation (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulations 113(11) and 115(3))
Are decisions always made by a committee? Yes. There shall be a Departmental Contracts Committee for contracting authorities listed in Schedules 1 and 2 with an estimated value from EUR 10,000 to the threshold established under Schedule 9; for the utilities sector and for all contracts above the Schedule 9 threshold the Department of Contracts (DOC) shall administer; each contracting entity shall set up a contracts committee that processes that have an estimated value which does not exceed five thousand euro (EUR 5,000); the committee itself is administered by a Departmental Contracts Committee. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulations 73–39)
Are there regulations on evaluation committee composition to prevent conflict of interest? Yes. Members of the contracting authority or of procurement service provider acting on behalf of the contracting authority involved in the conduct of the procurement procedure shall, either directly or through an intermediary, be involved only to the extent strictly necessary in the performance of public contracts; there are provisions for the declaration of absence of conflicts of interest or other personal circumstances which might be perceived to compromise their impartiality/independence in the procurement or ancillary procurement service provider, which could compromise their impartiality. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 2, 13 (1), 67 (2) and 73–84 (Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulations 2 and 30 (g)))
Is some part of evaluation committee mandatorily independent of contracting authority? Yes. The contracting authority informs, it is not mandatory that some part of the evaluation committee must be independent of the contracting authority; the Departmental Contracts Committee (and its representative) as a member appointed by the Permanent Secretary shall be a member of the Departmental Contracts Committee. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulations 73–39)
Are scoring results publicly available? No. The contracting authority informs, in writing and as soon as possible, competitors whose offers were not successful that it is not making use of their offer, indicating the reasons for this; the Law is unclear about information contained in award notices concerning below EU thresholds; in practice contracting authorities may provide debrief information on request but do not systematically publish full individual scoring results. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 97(3); Public Procurement Utilities Legislation (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Art. 30(5))
Does the law specify under which conditions the tender can be cancelled? Yes. The Director has the right to cancel the award of a contract at any time during a call for tenders and to reject all tenders for a valid reason; the Director may also cancel the call for tenders after evaluation if, following an investigation of the outcome, the Director found that such a contract has been awarded either in breach of these regulations or the General Contracts Conditions; if the bid evaluation process has not been concluded by the end of the validity period of the submitted bids, if the Director determines that the tender they shall consult the General Contracts Conditions. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulations 64 and 15)

Open competition

CFT publication

Does the law specify the location for publicizing open calls for tenders? Yes. OJEU/TED portal, government's e-procurement platforms (https://www.etenders.gov.mt, https://www.contracts.gov.mt and https://www.etenders.gov.mt) and Official Gazette; below EU thresholds, publication on the national portals and Official Gazette suffices; above EU thresholds, simultaneous publication in the OJEU/TED is also required. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 41 and 43; Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regs. 41 and 43)
Does the law specify the location for publicizing restricted calls for tenders? Yes. All open and restricted procedures with publication of notices are published electronically on the government's procurement platform (https://www.etenders.gov.mt, https://www.contracts.gov.mt) and Official Gazette; for contracts above EU thresholds, simultaneous publication in the OJEU/TED is also required; same rules as for open procedures. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 41 and 43; Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regs. 41 and 43)
Does the law specify the location for publicizing negotiated calls for tenders? Yes. The Public Procurement Portal (https://www.etenders.gov.mt, https://www.contracts.gov.mt) and Official Gazette serve as publication channels; for contracts above EU thresholds, simultaneous publication in the OJEU/TED is also required; in exceptional cases, negotiated procedures without prior publication do not require a prior notice but a contract award notice must be published within 30 days of contract conclusion. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 41 and 43; Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regs. 41 and 43)

Minimum # of bidders

What is the minimum number of bidders for restricted procedures? 5. For general procurement, the minimum number of candidates is 5 for restricted procedures; where fewer than 5 qualified candidates exist, the procedure may continue provided genuine competition can be ensured. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 237 (2))
What is the minimum number of bidders for negotiated procedures? 3. For competitive procedures with negotiation, the minimum number of candidates is 3; in the utilities sector the minimum number of candidates is three; in any event the number of invited candidates must be sufficient to ensure genuine competition. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 237 (2); Public Procurement Utilities Legislation (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulation 165 (2))
What is the minimum number of bidders for competitive dialogue procedures? 3. In the restricted procedure, the minimum number of candidates is three; in the competitive procedure with negotiation, the competitive dialogue and the innovation partnerships, the minimum number of candidates is three; in any event, the number of invited candidates must be sufficient to ensure genuine competition. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 237 (2); Public Procurement Utilities Legislation (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulation 165 (2))

Bidding period length

What are the minimum number of days for open procedures? 20. In the case of a contract with an estimated value which is less than the threshold established under Schedule 9, the minimum time for the submission of tenders from the date of publishing the call is 20 working days; in cases of urgency that the authority responsible for the tendering process may reduce this time limit to 15 days; in cases of extreme urgency this may be reduced to 10 days; above EU thresholds, the minimum is 35 days. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 46, 48, 164 and 222)
What are the minimum number of days for restricted procedures? 30. Restricted procedures must be open for a minimum of 30 days to allow for requests to participate, and for a further period of 30 days for the purposes of tender submission; these time periods can be curtailed subject to certain conditions. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 47–48, 172(2) and 228; Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulation 55)
What are the minimum number of days for competitive negotiated procedures? 30. Competitive procedures with negotiation and innovation partnerships must remain open for 30 days initially for requests to participate, and then the minimum time for initial tenders is 30 days; for competitive dialogue procedures the minimum time for requests to participate is 30 days, with timings for subsequent phases not established in the regulations. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 46, 178(2), 180 and 232; Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulation 107)

Institutional arrangements

Institutions and regulations

Does the law specify the main EXCEPTIONS preventing the application of the public procurement law for tenders/organisations? Yes. The Public Procurement Regulations shall not apply to: public service and design contests which are subject to rules of procurement of entities operating in the Water, Energy, Transport and Postal Services sectors; 2) service contracts awarded on the basis of an exclusive right; 3) public service contracts for the purpose of providing or operating public communications networks; 4) procurement of electronic communications services and networks; 5) contracts referred to in regulations 8 to 14 of the said Regulations and are awarded for the pursuit of certain activities; 6) purchase, development and co‑production or broadcasting time; 7) legal representation services; 8) employment contracts; 9) financial services; 10) in‑house and cooperation contracts meeting the Teckal conditions. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 7, 8–19, 24, 25 and 31; Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regs. 11–23)
Does the law specify the main types of institutions that must apply the public procurement law? Yes. The State, regional or local authorities, bodies governed by public law or associations formed by one or more such authorities or bodies are required to apply the procurement law; Schedule A list of the contracting authorities is further given in Schedule 1. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Reg. 4(17))
Does the law specify the main procedure types or procurement methods permitted? Yes. Open procedure, restricted procedure, competitive procedure with negotiation, innovation partnership, competitive dialogue, the negotiated procedure and design contest; below national thresholds, simplified procedures (call for quotations, departmental tender) apply. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 8(2), and 9; Public Procurement Utilities (S.L. 601.05), as amended in 2020, Regulations 59–68)
Is there a procurement arbitration court dedicated to public procurement cases? Yes. It shall be the function of the Public Contracts Review Board (PCRB) to address in particular: (a) concerns or objections relating to exclusions, non-compliant offers, contract award decisions or decisions taken in a procurement procedure at the various stages of the process; (b) being aware of any possible case of corruption occurring in the procurement procedure; (c) cases where no competitive bidding is required under the applicable rules; (d) awards to tenderers who do not comply with the applicable laws; complaints regarding tenders exceeding EUR 12,000 are received and decided upon by the PCRB, which is independent of contracting authorities; appeals on PCRB decisions lie to the Court of Appeal. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulations 80 and 67)
Is there a procurement regulatory body dedicated to public procurement? Yes. Two initiative or specific issues relating to its functions which may from time to time be determined by the Minister are: (1) the Department of Contracts (DOC) which administers procurement of contracting authorities and makes definite recommendations for the award of contracts above the national threshold; (2) the Procurement Policy Unit (PPU) within the Ministry of Finance, responsible for procurement policy and monitoring. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulations 64 and 73)
Does the law specify procurement advisors' profession (i.e. degree to be obtained, official list of members of the professional association) and its role in the tendering process (e.g. right to draft tender documentations, conduct market research identifying bidders)? No. There is no specification of procurement advisers' profession per se; the Law merely specifies that a jury for design contests shall be comprised of at least three members who are independent of the participants in the competition, that no less than ten other members who appear to the Prime Minister to have the relevant qualifications shall be appointed, and there is no mention in the Law of any required professional certification. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 81 (2), 63 (1) and 188)
Is disclosure of final, beneficial owners required for placing a bid? No. There is no mention in a law about beneficial ownership as a condition for procurement; however, tenderers must confirm absence of exclusion grounds and exclusion declarations may indirectly capture certain ownership‑related risks. (S.L. 601.03, Reg. 63(4))

Complaints

Is there a fee for arbitration procedure? Yes. The objection submitted to the Public Contracts Review Board shall not be valid unless the value of the tender by the contracting authority for each lot submitted by the tenderer exceeds five thousand euro (EUR 5,000); any complaint relating to tenders below that value (EUR 50,000) which are available at the Public Contracts Review Board shall be accompanied by a deposit of EUR 2,500. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 272)
Is there a ban on contract signature until arbitration court decision (first instance court)? Yes. The procedure for suspension is provided by regulation 265(1) of the Regulations; the process of the call for tenders shall be suspended on the grounds provided by regulation 262(1); the process of the call for tenders shall be suspended automatically; the contracting authority may not conclude a procurement contract during the period of ten calendar days allowed for the submission of appeals; the procedure is to be followed in submitting and deciding appeals as well as the provisions applicable to decide cases before the Review Board during a public session; decisions appearing before the Board are published online; whereas applicable in the case of an appeal the Court of Appeal shall in its turn also decide the submission of appeals, that shall appear in a form to be designated. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 266 and 275)
What is the maximum number of days until arbitration court decision from filing a complaint in the case of awarded contracts? 52. The procedure to be followed in submitting and deciding appeals as well as the provisions applicable to decide the case include the following: a date for the hearing shall be fixed by the Registrar of the Review Board within 42 calendar days and, after appointing the application for hearing, and after listening to the oral submissions made during a public session, decisions are available at https://finance.gov.mt/en/mfin/ppu/Pages/The-Public-Contracts-Review-Board.aspx; the Review Board shall decide the case in writing within 10 calendar days; any complaint and any interested party shall have the right to attend and to be accompanied by any person, company, organisation or information authority to detect conflict of interest during the public session; the decision of the Review Board shall be rendered in writing, stamped by an official seal. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regulation 279)
Is there a requirement to publicly release arbitration court decisions ? Yes. The Public Contracts Review Board is required to publicly release all decisions; PCRB decisions are published online at https://finance.gov.mt/en/mfin/ppu/Pages/The-Public-Contracts-Review-Board.aspx; decisions are also published in the Government Gazette in some instances. (Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03), as amended in 2020, Regs. 61(1), 63(4) and 204)

Legislation

Concession Contracts Regulations (S.L. 601.09) (English)pdf
Public Finance Management Act (Chapter 601) (English)pdf
Public Procurement of Contracting Authorities in the Fields of Defence and Security Regulations (S.L. 601.07) (English)pdf
Public Procurement Regulations (S.L. 601.03) (English)pdf
Procurement by Entities Operating in the Water, Energy, Transport and Postal Services Sectors Regulations (S.L. 601.05) (English)pdf

*Last update: 2017


Anti Money Laundering


Quantitative Data

Primary Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Risk-based approach67
Sanctions for natural persons100
Sanctions for legal persons75
Pecuniary sanctions for obliged entities80
Beneficial ownership of legal persons and legal arrangements62
Supervision of obliged entities100
Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)83
Mutual legal assistance (MLA) and International Cooperation100

Values lie in range between 0 and 100, higher values implying higher legislation comprehensiveness


Qualitative Data

We are frequently reviewing and refining our data, so in case you notice any mistake in our assessment, feel free to send us an email by clicking the button ()

Country score

Risk-based approach

Each Member State shall be legally required to prepare a national risk assessment that outlines appropriate steps to identify, assess, understand and mitigate the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing affecting it. Yes. 12A.(1) The Minister may, by regulations made under thisAct, establish a committee that shall be referred to as the NationalCo-ordinating Committee on Combating Money Laundering andFunding of Terrorism.(2) The committee establishedunder sub-article (1) shall drawup a national strategy and policies to combat money laundering,thefunding of terrorism and the financing of the proliferation ofweapons of mass destruction andco-ordinate any action to be givenkento develop, implement and review the national strategy andpolicies, including the co-ordination of nationathe risk assessmentntsand the actions to be taken to address any threats, vulnerabletiesand risks identified (Article 12A Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Member states shall be legally required to keep the national risk assessment up to date and review it at least every 4 years. No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
Member states should legally designate an authority or mechanism to co-ordinate actions to assess risks. Yes. 12A.(1) The Minister may, by regulations made under thisAct, establish a committee that shall be referred to as the NationalCo-ordinating Committee on Combating Money Laundering andFunding of Terrorism.(2) The committee establishedunder sub-article (1) shall drawup a national strategy and policies to combat money laundering,thefunding of terrorism and the financing of the proliferation ofweapons of mass destruction andco-ordinate any action to be givenkento develop, implement and review the national strategy andpolicies, including the co-ordination of nationathe risk assessmentntsand the actions to be taken to address any threats, vulnerabletiesand risks identified (Article 12A Prevention of Money Laundering Act)

Sanctions for natural persons

The following conduct, when committed intentionally, is punishable as a criminal offence: the conversion or transfer of property, knowing that such property is derived from criminal activity, for the purpose of concealing or disguising the illicit origin of the property or of assisting any person who is involved in the commission of such an activity to evade the legal consequences of that person’s action; Yes. "money laundering" means - (i) the conversion or transfer of property knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from, or the proceeds of, criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity, for the purpose of or purposes of concealing or disguising the origin of the property or of assisting any person or persons involved or concerned in criminal activity; (ii) the concealment or disguise of the true nature, source, location, disposition, movement, rights with respect of, in or over, or ownership of property, knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iii) the acquisition, possession or use of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iv) retention without reasonable excuse of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (v) attempting any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub-paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) within the meaning of article 41 of the Criminal Code; (vi) acting as an accomplice within the meaning of article 42 of the Criminal Code in respect of any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub- paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v); (Article 2 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
The following conduct, when committed intentionally, is punishable as a criminal offence: the concealment or disguise of the true nature, source, location, disposition, movement, rights with respect to, or ownership of, property, knowing that such property is derived from criminal activity; Yes. "money laundering" means - (i) the conversion or transfer of property knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from, or the proceeds of, criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity, for the purpose of or purposes of concealing or disguising the origin of the property or of assisting any person or persons involved or concerned in criminal activity; (ii) the concealment or disguise of the true nature, source, location, disposition, movement, rights with respect of, in or over, or ownership of property, knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iii) the acquisition, possession or use of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iv) retention without reasonable excuse of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (v) attempting any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub-paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) within the meaning of article 41 of the Criminal Code; (vi) acting as an accomplice within the meaning of article 42 of the Criminal Code in respect of any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub- paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v); (Article 2 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
The following conduct, when committed intentionally, is punishable as a criminal offence: the acquisition, possession or use of property, knowing at the time of receipt, that such property was derived from criminal activity. Yes. "money laundering" means - (i) the conversion or transfer of property knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from, or the proceeds of, criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity, for the purpose of or purposes of concealing or disguising the origin of the property or of assisting any person or persons involved or concerned in criminal activity; (ii) the concealment or disguise of the true nature, source, location, disposition, movement, rights with respect of, in or over, or ownership of property, knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iii) the acquisition, possession or use of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iv) retention without reasonable excuse of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (v) attempting any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub-paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) within the meaning of article 41 of the Criminal Code; (vi) acting as an accomplice within the meaning of article 42 of the Criminal Code in respect of any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub- paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v); (Article 2 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Aiding and abetting, inciting and attempting a money laundering offence is punishable as a criminal offence. Yes. "money laundering" means - (i) the conversion or transfer of property knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from, or the proceeds of, criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity, for the purpose of or purposes of concealing or disguising the origin of the property or of assisting any person or persons involved or concerned in criminal activity; (ii) the concealment or disguise of the true nature, source, location, disposition, movement, rights with respect of, in or over, or ownership of property, knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iii) the acquisition, possession or use of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iv) retention without reasonable excuse of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (v) attempting any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub-paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) within the meaning of article 41 of the Criminal Code; (vi) acting as an accomplice within the meaning of article 42 of the Criminal Code in respect of any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub- paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v); (Article 2 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Money laundering offences are punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of at least four years. Yes. (1) Any person committing any act of money laundering shall be guilty of an offence and shall, on conviction, be liable to a fine (multa) not exceeding two million and five hundred thousand euro (€2,500,000), or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding eighteen years, or to both such fine and imprisonment: (Article 3 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
A prior or simultaneous conviction for the criminal activity from which the property was derived is not a prerequisite for a conviction for money laundering offences Yes. "money laundering" means - (i) the conversion or transfer of property knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from, or the proceeds of, criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity, for the purpose of or purposes of concealing or disguising the origin of the property or of assisting any person or persons involved or concerned in criminal activity; (ii) the concealment or disguise of the true nature, source, location, disposition, movement, rights with respect of, in or over, or ownership of property, knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iii) the acquisition, possession or use of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iv) retention without reasonable excuse of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (v) attempting any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub-paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) within the meaning of article 41 of the Criminal Code; (vi) acting as an accomplice within the meaning of article 42 of the Criminal Code in respect of any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub- paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v); (Article 2 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
A conviction for money laundering offences is possible where it is established that the property was derived from a criminal activity, without it being necessary to establish all the factual elements or all circumstances relating to that criminal activity, including the identity of the perpetrator; Yes. "money laundering" means - (i) the conversion or transfer of property knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from, or the proceeds of, criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity, for the purpose of or purposes of concealing or disguising the origin of the property or of assisting any person or persons involved or concerned in criminal activity; (ii) the concealment or disguise of the true nature, source, location, disposition, movement, rights with respect of, in or over, or ownership of property, knowing or suspecting that such property is derived directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iii) the acquisition, possession or use of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (iv) retention without reasonable excuse of property knowing or suspecting that the same was derived or originated directly or indirectly from criminal activity or from an act or acts of participation in criminal activity; (v) attempting any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub-paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) within the meaning of article 41 of the Criminal Code; (vi) acting as an accomplice within the meaning of article 42 of the Criminal Code in respect of any of the matters or activities defined in the above foregoing sub- paragraphs (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v); (Article 2 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)

Sanctions for legal persons

Legal persons can be held liable for the breaches of Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 or Regulation (EU) 2023/1113 committed on their behalf or for their benefit by any person, acting individually or as part of a body of that legal person and having a leading position within that legal person, based on any of the following: a power to represent the legal person; an authority to take decisions on behalf of the legal person; an authority to exercise control within the legal person. Yes. (4) Where it is established that an offence of money laundering under this Act was committed by an officer of a body corporate as is referred to in article 121D of the Criminal Code or by a person having a power of representation or having such authority as is referred to in that article and the offence was committed for the benefit, in part or in whole, of that body corporate, the said person shall for the purposes of this Act be deemed to be vested with the legal representation of the same body corporate which shall be liable to the punishment laid down in sub-article (1): Provided that where legal representation no longer vests in the said person, for purposes of this article, legal representation shall vest in the person occupying the office in his stead or in such person as is referred to in that article. (Article 3 (4) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Legal persons can be held liable where the lack of supervision or control has made possible the commission of any money laundering offences for the benefit of that legal person by a person under its authority. No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
Legal persons held liable are punishable by criminal or non-criminal fines. Yes. 3. (1) Any person committing any act of money laundering shall be guilty of an offence and shall, on conviction, be liable to a fine (multa) not exceeding two million and five hundred thousand euro (€2,500,000), or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding eighteen years, or to both such fine and imprisonment: (Article 3 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Legal persons held liable are punishable by other sanctions, such as: exclusion from entitlement to public benefits or aid; temporary or permanent exclusion from access to public funding, including tender procedures, grants and concessions; temporary or permanent disqualification from the practice of commercial activities; placing under judicial supervision; a judicial winding-up order; temporary or permanent closure of establishments which have been used for committing the offence. Yes. (b) in the case where an act of money laundering is committed by a body of persons, whether corporate or unincorporate: (i) the exclusion from entitlement to public benefits or public aid; (ii) the temporary or permanent exclusion from access to public funding, including tender procedures, grants and concessions; (iii) the temporary or permanent disqualification from the practice of commercial activities; (iv) the placing under judicial supervision; (v) its dissolution and winding up; (vi) the temporary or permanent closure of establishments which have been used for committing the offence. (Article 3 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)

Pecuniary sanctions for obliged entities

In the event of a breach of Regulations (EU) 2024/1624 and (EU) 2023/1113, where obligations apply to legal persons, pecuniary sanctions can be imposed and administrative measures can be applied not only to the legal person, but also to the senior management and to other natural persons who under national law are responsible for the breach. Yes. 13. (1) The Minister may make rules or regulations to provide for criminal punishments, administrative penalties and other measures that maybe imposed in respect of any contravention, breach or failure to comply with any rules, regulations or directives made under this Act: Provided that: (a) criminal punishments so imposed shall not exceed a fine (multa) of one million euro (€1,000,000) or imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years, or both such fine and imprisonment as set out in the rules or regulations concerned; and (b) administrative penalties so imposed shall not exceed: (i) five million euro (€5,000,000); or (ii) twice the amount of the benefit derived from the contravention, breach or failure to comply, where this can be determined; or (iii) ten per centum (10%) of the total annual turnover according to the latest approved available financial statements. (Article 13 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Pecuniary sanctions shall be imposed on obliged entities for serious, repeated or systematic breaches, whether committed intentionally or negligently, of the requirements laid down in the following provisions of Regulation (EU) 2024/1624: Chapter II (Internal policies, procedures and controls of obliged entities); Chapter III (Customer due diligence); Chapter V (Reporting obligations); Article 77 (Record retention). Yes. 13. (1) The Minister may make rules or regulations to provide for criminal punishments, administrative penalties and other measures that maybe imposed in respect of any contravention, breach or failure to comply with any rules, regulations or directives made under this Act: Provided that: (a) criminal punishments so imposed shall not exceed a fine (multa) of one million euro (€1,000,000) or imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years, or both such fine and imprisonment as set out in the rules or regulations concerned; and (b) administrative penalties so imposed shall not exceed: (i) five million euro (€5,000,000); or (ii) twice the amount of the benefit derived from the contravention, breach or failure to comply, where this can be determined; or (iii) ten per centum (10%) of the total annual turnover according to the latest approved available financial statements. (Article 13 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Supervisors are able to apply administrative measures to an obliged entity, where they identify: breaches of Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 or Regulation (EU) 2023/1113, either in combination with pecuniary sanctions for serious, repeated and systematic breaches, or on their own; weaknesses in the internal policies, procedures and controls of the obliged entity that are likely to result in breaches of the requirements; that the obliged entity has internal policies, procedures and controls that are not commensurate with the risks of money laundering, its predicate offences or terrorist financing to which the entity is exposed. Yes. (2) The administrative penalties referred to under sub-article (1) shall be imposed by the Unit in accordance with policies and procedures established by the Board of Governors referred to in article 18, from time to time. (Article 13 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Where obliged entities fail to comply with administrative measures applied by the supervisor within the applicable deadlines, supervisors are able to impose periodic penalty payments in order to compel compliance with those administrative measures. No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
Supervisors are required to publish on their website, in an accessible format, decisions imposing pecuniary sanctions, applying administrative measures or imposing periodic penalty payments. Yes. 13C. (1) Any administrative penalty imposed by the Unit in terms of rules and regulations made under article 13, and which exceeds fifty thousand euro (€50,000), shall be subject to publication on the official website of the Unit, together with any other administrative measure imposed by the Unit in conjunction with that administrative penalty and the publication shall take place within five (5) working days from the date of notification of the administrative penalty to the subject person: Provided further that where the administrative penalty has been appealed in terms of article 13A, the Unit shall, without undue delay, publish information on the appeal, and thereafter on the status of the appeal and the outcome thereof, including information on any decision of the Court of Appeal (Inferior Jurisdiction) which alters or revokes in whole or in part that administrative penalty in question. (Article 13C (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)

Beneficial ownership of legal persons and legal arrangements

Beneficial ownership information must be held in a central register in the Member State where the legal entity is created or where the trustee of an express trust or person holding an equivalent position in a similar legal arrangement is established or resides, or from where the legal arrangement is administered. Yes. 3.(1) With effect from the date of the coming intoforce of these regulations, whereea company is to be constitutedunderthe Act, together with the memorandum and articles, if any, deltrueto the Registrar for registration in accordance with article 76of theAct, there shall be delivered tothe Registrar a declaration, iin the formset out in the First Schedule tothese regulations, signed by oof theproposed directors of the company, containing information inaccordance with sub-regulation (2) on all the beneficial ownersof thecompany. (Article 3 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
Member States shall ensure that the entities in charge of the central registers are empowered to request from legal entities, trustees of any express trust and persons holding an equivalent position in a similar legal arrangement, and their legal and beneficial owners, any information necessary to identify and verify their beneficial owners, including resolutions of the board of directors and minutes of their meetings, partnership agreements, trust deeds, power of attorney or other contractual agreements and documentation. Yes. 9.(1) The Registrar may:(a) refuse to register any document of a company,which is required to be registered under the Act, if thebeneficial ownership information was not submitted or if he isnot satisfied that the company has provided accurate and up todate information on all the benefitscial owners of the company asrequired by these regulations;(b) restrict new incorporations for directors involvedin other Maltese registered companies that failed to submitinformation on beneficial owners;(c) before registering a new company or return, takesuch steps and require such information or documentation as hemay deem necessary to ascertain the correctness of thebeneficial information submitted to him.(2) Where a company fails to provide information on itsbeneficial owners in accordance with these regulations, the Regsleepshall inform the company that he is not in receipt of the informationmation onbeneficial owners (Article 9 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
Where no person is identified as the beneficial owner, the central register shall include: (a) a statement that there is no beneficial owner or that the beneficial owners could not be determined, accompanied by a corresponding justification (b) the details of all natural persons who hold the position of senior managing officials in the legal entity equivalent to the following information: all names and surnames, place and full date of birth, residential address, country of residence and nationality or nationalities of the beneficial owner, number of identity document, such as passport or national identity document, and, where it exists, unique personal identification number assigned to the person by his or her country of usual residence, and general description of the source of such number No. Abesnt from legal framework (Abesnt from legal framework)
Entities in charge of the central registers are required to verify, within a reasonable time upon submission of the beneficial ownership information, and on a regular basis thereafter, that such information is adequate, accurate and up to date. Yes. 5.(1) Every company shall obtain and at all times hold adequate, accurate and up to date information in respect of its beneficial owners, which shall at least include the following particulars: (a) the name, the date of birth, nationality or nationalities, the country of residence and an official identification document number indicating the type of document and the country of issue, of each beneficial owner; (b) the nature and extent of the beneficial interest held by each beneficial owner and any changes thereto; (c) the effective date on which a natural person became, or ceased to be, a beneficial owner of the company or has increased or reduced his beneficial interest in the company.
Competent authorities, if appropriate and to the extent that such requirement does not interfere unnecessarily with their functions, are required to report to the entities in charge of the central registers any discrepancies they find between information available in the central registers and the information available to them. Yes. The competent authorities mentioned in regulation 7(1)(a), to the extent that this requirement does not interfere unnecessarily with their functions, and subject persons, as referred to in regulation 7(1)(b), shall report any discrepancies they find between the beneficial information available to them and the beneficial ownership information held in the register of beneficial owners kept by the Registrar. The Registrar shall take any appropriate actions in order to resolve such discrepancies and, where necessary, update the beneficial ownership information in the register. Until such time that discrepancies are resolved, the Registrar may, if he deems appropriate, make specific mention in the register of beneficial owners of the discrepancies. (Article 11 (3) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
The information contained in the central registers must include any change to the beneficial ownership of legal entities and legal arrangements and to nominee arrangements, following their first recording in the central register. Yes. 6. (1) Where there is a change in the beneficial ownership of a company, the company shall, within fourteen days after the date on which the change is recorded with the company, deliver to the Registrar a notice, in the form set out in the First Schedule to these regulations, of the change, providing the information required under regulation 3 on any new beneficial owner, updated information including on the nature and extent of the beneficial interest held on each of the other beneficial owners and the effective date of changes made, and the Registrar shall enter the said changes in the register of beneficial owners. (Article 6 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
The entity in charge of the central register is empowered, whether directly or by application to another authority, including judicial authorities, to carry out checks, including on-site inspections at the business premises or registered office of legal entities, in order to establish the current beneficial ownership of the entity and to verify that the information submitted to the central register is accurate, adequate and up-to-date. Yes. (1) The Registrar may carry out physical on-site investigation at the premises referred to in regulation 5(3), in order to establish the current beneficial ownership and to verify that the beneficial ownership information submitted to him in respect of a commercial partnership is accurate and up-to-date. The right of the Registrar to verify such information shall not be restricted, obstructed or precluded in any manner. (Article 12 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
Where verification leads an entity in charge of a central register to conclude that there are inconsistencies or errors in the beneficial ownership information, the entity in charge of a central register is able to withhold or refuse to issue a valid certificate of proof of registration, or to suspend the validity of an existing certification of proof of registration. Yes. 9.(1)The Registrar may: (a)refuse to register any document of a company, which is required to be registered under the Act, if the beneficial ownership information was not submitted or if he is not satisfied that the company has provided accurate and up to date information on all the beneficial owners of the company as required by these regulations; (Article 9 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
The entity in charge of the central register is empowered to, whether directly or by application to another authority, including judicial authorities, apply effective, proportionate and dissuasive measures or impose such pecuniary sanctions for failures, including of a repeated nature, to provide the central register with accurate, adequate and up-to-date information about their beneficial ownership. Yes. 15. (1) Where any provision of these regulations provides for the imposition of a penalty, the amount of such penalty shall be determined by reference to the Second Schedule of these regulations, which specifies the maximum penalty that may be imposed by the Registrar under any of the provisions of these regulations. (2) In the Second Schedule, the first column indicates the regulation and sub-regulation which prescribes that a penalty shall be imposed, the second column gives a general description of the infringement, which description shall not be relied on in interpreting any provision of these regulations, the third column prescribes the maximum penalty and the fourth column prescribes the maximum daily default penalty. The penalty shall become due on the day on which the default occurs and the daily default penalty shall be due for every day during which the default continues and shall accrue from the day following that on which the default occurs. (3) Action by the Registrar for the recovery of a penalty under these regulations shall be prescribed by the lapse of five years from the day on which the default occurs. (4) A company shall be jointly and severally liable with its officers for the payment of any administrative penalties imposed under these regulations. (5) The provisions of article 401(3) to (17) of the Act shall apply to any penalty imposed by the Registrar under these regulations. (Article 15 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
Competent authorities have immediate, unfiltered, direct and free access to the information held in the interconnected central registers without alerting the legal entity or legal arrangement concerned. These competent authorities include: self-regulatory bodies in the performance of supervisory functions of AML rules; tax authorities; national authorities with designated responsibilities for the implementation of Union restrictive measures; AMLA for the purposes of joint analyses; EPPO; OLAF; Europol and Eurojust when providing operational support to the competent authorities of Member States. Yes. 7.(1) The information on the beneficial owners of a company held by the Registrar in the register of beneficial owners shall, in accordance with data protection requirements, be accessible to: (a) (i) national competent authorities with designated responsibilities for combating money laundering and terrorist financing; (ii) national competent authorities that have the function of investigating or prosecuting money laundering, associated criminal offences and terrorist financing, or of tracing, seizing, freezing and confiscating criminal assets; (iii) the Financial Intelligence Analysis Unit; (iv) national tax authorities; and (v) any other national competent authority within the meaning assigned to it under the Prevention of Money Laundering and Funding of Terrorism Regulations, not already covered under sub-paragraphs (i) to (iv), in a timely manner without any restriction and without alerting the company concerned; and //// 13. (1) In accordance with the requirements of Directive EU 2015/849 of EU Parliament and Council of 20th May 2015 the register of beneficial owners held by the Registrar in accordance with regulation 4 shall be interconnected with the system of interconnection of central, commercial and companies registers composed of the registers of Member States and EEA States via the European Central Platform and the European e-Justice portal serving as the European electronic access point, in terms of Directive 2009/101/EC, as amended by Directive 2012/17/EU. (2) The information on the beneficial owners of a company held by the Registrar in the register of beneficial owners shall be available and accessible through the system of interconnection of registers mentioned in this regulation. (Article 7 (1) and 13 Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
Beneficial ownership information held in central registers may be made available to obliged entities upon payment of a fee, which shall be limited to what is strictly necessary to cover the costs of ensuring the quality of the information held in the central registers and of making the information available. Those fees shall be established in such a way as not to undermine effective access to the information held in the central registers. Yes. (b) subject persons in terms of the Prevention of Money Laundering and Funding of Terrorism Regulations providing services in or from Malta, for the purpose of carrying out customer due diligence in accordance with the said regulations, in a timely manner. (Article 7 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
Any natural or legal person that can demonstrate a legitimate interest in the prevention and combating of money laundering, its predicate offences and terrorist financing has access to the following information on beneficial owners of legal entities and legal arrangements held in the interconnected central registers, without alerting the legal entity or legal arrangement concerned: the name of the beneficial owner; the month and year of birth of the beneficial owner; the country of residence and nationality or nationalities of the beneficial owner; for beneficial owners of legal entities, the nature and extent of the beneficial interest held; for beneficial owners of express trusts or similar legal arrangements, the nature of the beneficial interest. Yes. any other natural or legal person, that can demonstrate a legitimate interest in the prevention and combating of money laundering, its predicate offences, or the financing of terrorism, shall be granted access to information on the beneficial ownership of the company by the Registrar, without alerting the company concerned: (Article 7 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
The following natural or legal persons shall be deemed to have a legitimate interest to access the information listed above: persons acting for the purpose of journalism, reporting or any other form of expression in the media, that are connected with the prevention or combating of money laundering, its predicate offences or terrorist financing; No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
The following natural or legal persons shall be deemed to have a legitimate interest to access the information listed above: civil society organisations, including non-governmental organisations and academia, that are connected with the prevention or combating of money laundering, its predicate offences or terrorist financing; No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
The following natural or legal persons shall be deemed to have a legitimate interest to access the information listed above: natural or legal persons likely to enter into a transaction with a legal entity or legal arrangement and who wish to prevent any link between such a transaction and money laundering, its predicate offences or terrorist financing; No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
The following natural or legal persons shall be deemed to have a legitimate interest to access the information listed above: Member States’ public authorities in the context of public procurement procedures, in respect of the tenderers and operators being awarded the contract under the public procurement procedure; No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
Member States shall ensure that the information provided by central registers does not lead to the identification of any person consulting the register where such persons are: persons acting for the purpose of journalism, reporting or any other form of expression in the media, that are connected with the prevention or combating of money laundering, its predicate offences or terrorist financing; No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
Member States shall ensure that the information provided by central registers does not lead to the identification of any person consulting the register where such persons are: civil society organisations that are connected with the prevention or combating of money laundering, its predicate offences or terrorist financing. No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
Where entities in charge of central registers decide to grant access to beneficial ownership information, they shall issue a certificate granting access for 3 years. Entities in charge of central registers shall respond to any subsequent request to access beneficial ownership information by the same person within 7 working days. No. Absent from legal framework (Absent from legal framework)
Member States shall ensure that entities in charge of central registers shall only refuse a request to access beneficial ownership information on one of the following grounds: the applicant has not provided the necessary information or documents pursuant to paragraph 1; a legitimate interest to access beneficial ownership information has not been demonstrated; where on the basis of information in its possession, the entity in charge of the central register has a reasonable concern that the information will not be used for the purposes for which it was requested or that the information will be used for purposes that are not connected to the prevention of money laundering, its predicate offences or terrorist financing; one or more of the situations referred to in Article 15 applies; the legitimate interest to access beneficial ownership information granted by the central register of another Member State does not extend to the purposes for which the information is sought; where the applicant is in a third country and responding to the request to access information would not comply with the provisions of Chapter V of Regulation (EU) 2016/679. Yes. any other natural or legal person, that can demonstrate a legitimate interest in the prevention and combating of money laundering, its predicate offences, or the financing of terrorism, shall be granted access to information on the beneficial ownership of the company by the Registrar, without alerting the company concerned: (Article 7 (1) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)
In exceptional circumstances to be laid down in national law, where the access to beneficial ownership information would expose the beneficial owner to disproportionate risk of fraud, kidnapping, blackmail, extortion, harassment, violence or intimidation, or where the beneficial owner is a minor or otherwise legally incapable, Member States shall provide for an exemption from such access to all or part of the personal information on the beneficial owner. Member States shall ensure that such exemptions are granted on a case-by-case basis upon a detailed evaluation of the exceptional nature of the circumstances and confirmation that those disproportionate risks exist. The right to an administrative review of the decision granting an exemption and the right to an effective judicial remedy shall be guaranteed. Yes. (2) Access to information on a beneficial owner of a company under sub-regulations (1)(b) and (2) may not be granted, in full or in part, where in exceptional circumstances to be justified by means of documentary evidence and to be determined on a case by case basis, access to such beneficial ownership information would expose the beneficial owner to the risk of fraud, kidnapping, blackmail, violence or intimidation, or where the beneficial owner is a minor or otherwise incapable. (Article 7 (2) Companies Act (Register of Beneficial Owners) Regulations)

Supervision of obliged entities

Each Member State shall ensure that all obliged entities established in its territory are subject to adequate and effective supervision. To that end, each Member State shall appoint one or more supervisors to monitor effectively, and to take the measures necessary to ensure compliance by the obliged entities with Regulations (EU) 2024/1624 and (EU) 2023/1113. Yes. 26. (1) The Unit shall be responsible to ensure that subject persons comply with the provisions of this Act and any regulations made thereunder in so far as these are applicable to them. (2) The Unit shall carry out its responsibilities under sub-article (1) on a risk sensitive basis and, in so doing, the Unit may: (a) authorise any of its officers, employees or agents, or any expert engaged under article 26A, on producing evidence of his authority, to require any subject person to provide him forthwith with such information or documentation as may be required in order to monitor compliance with the provisions of this Act and any regulation made thereunder and to answer any questions as the Unit may reasonably require for the performance of its functions under sub-article (1), and such officer, employee, agent or expert may demand access to any data, information or documentation, whether or however stored or held, that the Unit considers relevant to monitor compliance, and may take copies of such data, information or documentation whether digital or otherwise; (b) by notice in writing served on a subject person require that person to produce, within the time and at the place as may be specified in that notice, any documents as may be so specified in the notice provided such documents are reasonably required by the Unit for the performance of its functions under this Act; (c) carry out on-site examinations on subject persons with the aim of monitoring compliance with the provisions of this Act and any regulations made thereunder; (d) make notes, take copies or recordings, whether digital or otherwise, of any data, information or documentation obtained or accessed by the Unit, or of any answers to questions posed by the Unit in the exercise of its powers under this sub-article. (Article 26 Prevention of Money Laundering Act)

Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)

Each Member State shall establish an FIU in order to prevent, detect and effectively combat money laundering and terrorist financing. Yes. 16. (1) Subject to the other provisions of this Act and without prejudice to any other power or function conferred on it by this Act or by any other law, the Unit shall be responsible for the collection, collation, processing, analysis and dissemination of information with a view to preventing, detecting and effectively combating money laundering and funding of terrorism and without prejudice to the generality of the aforesaid shall in particular have the following functions: (Article 16 Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
The FIU as the central national unit shall be responsible for receiving and analysing suspicious transaction reports and other information relevant to money laundering, associated predicate offences or terrorist financing. Yes. (a) to receive reports of transactions or activities suspected to involve money laundering or funding of terrorism or property that may have derived directly or indirectly from, or constitutes the proceeds of, criminal activity made by any subject person in pursuance of any regulation made under article 12, to supplement such reports with such additional information as may be available to it or as it may demand, to analyse the report together with such additional information and to draw upan analytical report on the result of such analysis; (Article 16 Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
The FIU shall be responsible for disseminating the results of its analyses and any additional relevant information to the competent authorities where there are grounds to suspect money laundering, associated predicate offences or terrorist financing. Yes. (b) to send any analytical report as is referred to in paragraph (a) to the Commissioner of Police for further investigation if having considered the report received under paragraph (a), the Unit also has reasonable grounds to suspect that the transaction or activity is suspicious and could involve money laundering or funding of terrorism or property that may have derived directly or indirectly from, or constitutes the proceeds of, criminal activity; (c) to monitor compliance by subject persons and to coPREVENTION OF MONEY LAUNDERING [CAP. 373. 21 operate and liaise with any authority in or outside Malta having supervisory or regulatory functions to ensure such compliance; (d) to send to the Commissioner of Police together with any analytical report sent in accordance with paragraph (b) or at any time thereafter any information, document, analysis or other material in support of the report; (e) to instruct any subject (Article 16 Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
The FIU shall be operationally independent and autonomous, which means that the FIU shall have the authority and capacity to carry out its functions freely, including the ability to take autonomous decisions to analyse, request and disseminate specific information. It shall be free from any undue political, government or industry influence or interference. No. (1) There shall be a government agency, to be known as the Financial Intelligence Analysis Unit. (2) The Unit shall be a body corporate having a distinct legal personality and shall be capable, subject to the provisions of this Act, of entering into contracts, of concluding memoranda of understanding or other agreements including with any foreign body, authority or agency as is referred to in article 16(1)(k), of acquiring, holding and disposing of any kind of property for the purposes of its functions, of suing and being sued, and of doing all such things and entering into all such transactions as are incidental or conducive to the exercise or performance of its functions under this Act, including the borrowing of money. (Article 15 (1) and (2) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
The FIU, regardless of their organisational status, is authorised to have access to the information that they require to fulfil their tasks, including financial, administrative and law enforcement information. Yes. (3) For the purposes of pursuing its responsibilities under subarticle (1) on a risk-sensitive basis the Unit shall: (a) ensure that is has a clear understanding of the money laundering and funding of terrorism risks to which Malta is exposed; (b) take any necessary action and have access to any information or documentation that is necessary to assess and determine the money laundering and funding of terrorism risk profile of subject persons; (Article 26 (3) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
FIUs are empowered to take urgent action, directly or indirectly, where there is a suspicion that a transaction is related to money laundering or terrorist financing, to suspend or withhold consent to that transaction. Yes. 28. (1) Where the Unit is informed by a subject person that a transaction to be carried out is suspected or known to be related to money laundering or the funding of terrorism, or to involve property that may have derived directly or indirectly from, or constitutes the proceeds of, criminal activity, or where, on the basis of information in its possession, including upon a request by a foreign body, authority or agency which is considered to have functions equivalent or analogous to those of the Unit, the Unit knows or suspects that a transaction to be carried out by a subject person is related to money laundering or the funding of terrorism, or involves property that is derived from or constitutes the proceeds of criminal activity, the Unit may, where it considers such action n e c e s s a r y, o p p o s e t h e e x e c u t i o n o f t h e t r a n s a c t i o n a n d a notification of such opposition shall be made to the subject person concerned by any written means: Provided that where the Unit opposes the execution of the transaction following receipt of information from the subject person, the notification of such opposition shall be made to the subject person by not later than one working day following the day on which the information was received by the Unit and the subject person shall, within such period, not carry out the transaction in question. (2) The opposition by the Unit shall suspend the execution of the transaction for a period of one working day following the day of the notification by the Unit referred to in sub-article (1), unless the Unit shall, by any written means, authorise earlier the execution of the transaction. (3) The Unit may, at its discretion, extend the period referred to in sub-article (2) by a further working day where this is considered to be necessary by the Unit and such extension shall be notified to the subject person before the lapse of the period referred to in subarticle (2). (Article 28 (1) Prevention of Money Laundering Act)

Mutual legal assistance (MLA) and International Cooperation

Member States shall ensure that the FIU to whom the request is made is legally required to use the whole range of its available powers which it would normally use domestically for receiving and analysing information when it replies to a request for information from another FIU. Yes. Articles 27 - 27d of AML Law regulates the international cooperation (Article 27 - 27d Prevention of Money Laundering Act)
Member States shall ensure that FIUs are legally required to exchange, spontaneously or upon request, any information that may be relevant for the processing or analysis of information by the FIU related to money laundering, its predicate offences, or terrorist financing, and the natural or legal person involved, regardless of the type of predicate offences that may be involved, and even if the type of predicate offences that may be involved is not identified at the time of the exchange. Yes. Articles 27 - 27d of AML Law regulates the international cooperation (Article 27 - 27d Prevention of Money Laundering Act)

Legislation

Foreign Interference Act 1982missing file:
EPRA (2000) Political Communication on Television Matters for debatemissing file:
Income Tax Act, 1949, amended 2016missing file:
General Elections Law, No.​ 354, 1991, amended 2015missing file:

*Last update: 2017


Asset Recovery


Quantitative Data

Primary Metric

201220152016201720202024Trend
Asset Offices100
Confiscation56
International cooperation75

Values lie in range between 0 and 100, higher values implying higher legislation comprehensiveness


Qualitative Data

We are frequently reviewing and refining our data, so in case you notice any mistake in our assessment, feel free to send us an email by clicking the button ()

Country score

Asset Offices

Each Member State shall legally designate at least one asset recovery office to facilitate cross-border cooperation in relation to asset-tracing investigations and to conduct asset recovery functions in both criminal matters and civil or administrative matters. Yes. Malta has an Asset Recovery Bureau established by law to identify, trace, seize, freeze, manage and dispose of proceeds of crime, (Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621), Part establishing the Asset Recovery Bureau and its functions (including Article 32 and following).)
Each Member State shall legally designate at least one competent authority to function as an asset management office for the purpose of the management of frozen and confiscated property until the disposal of that property further to a final confiscation order. Yes. The Asset Recovery Bureau is the national centralised authority responsible for the management, conservation and, where appropriate, (Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621), provisions on the Asset Recovery Bureau and management of property (including Articles 32–39).)

Confiscation

Member States shall take the necessary measures to enable the freezing of property necessary to ensure a possible confiscation of that property. The freezing measures shall consist of freezing orders and immediate action. (Freezing measures) Yes. The Criminal Code and Proceeds of Crime Act provide for seizing and freezing orders prohibiting any dealing with property where there is reasonable cause to believe it is subject to confiscation, (Criminal Code (Cap. 9), Article 23A; Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621), Article 36(1) and Article 36(4)(a).)
Member States shall take the necessary measures to enable the confiscation, either wholly or in part, of instrumentalities and proceeds stemming from a criminal offence subject to a final conviction, which may also result from proceedings in absentia. (Conviction based confiscation) Yes. Upon conviction for offences listed in the Criminal Code, (Criminal Code (Cap. 9), Article 23 (forfeiture of the corpus delicti and benefits derived from the offence).)
Member States shall take the necessary measures to enable the confiscation of property the value of which corresponds to instrumentalities or proceeds stemming from a criminal offence subject to a final conviction, which may also result from proceedings in absentia. (Confiscation of equivalent value) Yes. If the proceeds or benefits cannot be found or have been disposed of, (Criminal Code (Cap. 9), Article 23(3) (forfeiture of other property up to the value of the proceeds).)
Member States shall take the necessary measures to enable the confiscation of proceeds, or other property the value of which corresponds to proceeds, which, directly or indirectly, were transferred by a suspected or accused person to third parties, or which were acquired by third parties from a suspected or accused person. (Third-party confiscation) Yes. Forfeiture may be ordered also against property held by others where it represents proceeds or benefits of the offence and the holder is not a bona fide third party; third parties can contest confiscation before the Civil Court (Assets Recovery Section). (Criminal Code (Cap. 9), Article 23; Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621), provisions granting third parties a right to contest confiscation in the Civil Court, First Hall (Assets Recovery Section).)
Member States shall take the necessary measures to enable the confiscation, either wholly or in part, of property belonging to a person convicted of a criminal offence where the offence committed is liable to give rise, directly or indirectly, to economic benefit, and where a national court is satisfied that the property is derived from criminal conduct. (Extended confiscation) Yes. The confiscation regime allows forfeiture of any property representing benefits derived from the offence and property of equivalent value, thus reaching assets beyond the immediate proceeds, (Criminal Code (Cap. 9), Article 23; Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621), Articles)
Member States shall take the necessary measures to enable the confiscation of instrumentalities, proceeds or property, or proceeds or property transferred to third parties, where criminal proceedings have been initiated but could not be continued because of illness, absconding, or death of the accused or the limitation period of the offence is below 15 years and has expired. (Non-conviction based confiscation) No. As of 31.12.2024, Maltese confiscation remained primarily conviction-based; there was no general non‑conviction based confiscation regime covering the listed situations in a way corresponding to Article 15 of Directive (EU) 2024/1260. (Criminal Code (Cap. 9), Article 23; Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621) (no general NCB framework for those specific circumstances as at end 2024).)
Confiscation without a prior conviction shall be limited to cases where, in the absence of the circumstances above, it would have been possible for the relevant criminal proceedings to lead to a criminal conviction for, at least, offences liable to give rise, directly or indirectly, to substantial economic benefit, and where the national court is satisfied that the instrumentalities, proceeds or property to be confiscated are derived from, or directly or indirectly linked to, the criminal offence in question. (Non-conviction based confiscation) No. Maltese law had not, by 31.12.2024, introduced a separate confiscation-only procedure without conviction that meets this criterion; (Criminal Code (Cap. 9), Article 23; Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621) (no separate confiscation-only procedure without conviction in force).)
Member States shall take the necessary measures to enable the confiscation of property identified in the context of an investigation in relation to a criminal offence, provided that a national court is satisfied that the identified property is (i) derived from criminal conduct committed within the framework of a criminal organisation and (ii) that conduct is liable to give rise, directly or indirectly, to substantial economic benefit. A ‘criminal offence’ in this case is punishable by deprivation of liberty of a maximum of at least four years. (Confiscation of unexplained wealth) No. There is no separate unexplained‑wealth confiscation regime; confiscation is linked to proceeds of specified offences and equivalent value, rather than to a stand-alone unexplained‑wealth (Criminal Code (Cap. 9), Article 23; Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621) (no specific unexplained‑wealth confiscation provision as at end 2024).)
Member States are legally required to adopt a national strategy on asset recovery and update it at regular intervals of no longer than five years. (Deadline of 24 May 2027) No. Malta had not adopted a specific national asset recovery strategy with a statutory five‑year updating obligation as of 31.12.2024. (No explicit national asset recovery strategy provision in Criminal Code, Prevention of Money Laundering Act or Proceeds of Crime Act.)

International cooperation

To facilitate cross-border cooperation, Member States shall legally require measures to enable the swift tracing and identification of instrumentalities and proceeds, or of property which is, or might become, the object of a freezing or confiscation order in the course of proceedings in criminal matters. Yes. The Asset Recovery Bureau and the competent courts can issue and execute freezing and seizing orders, including at the request of foreign authorities, under the Proceeds of Crime Act. (Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621), Articles 32–39 (functions of the Asset Recovery Bureau, seizing and freezing orders and cooperation with other states).)
Member States shall legally require the necessary measures to ensure that their asset recovery offices provide, upon request from an asset recovery office in another Member State, any information that those asset recovery offices have access to, and that is necessary for the performance of the tasks of the asset recovery office requesting that information Yes. The Asset Recovery Bureau acts as the national contact point for cooperation and information exchange with other states’ (Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621), provisions on the Asset Recovery Bureau’s)
Member States may legally allow for cost-sharing agreements with other Member States on the execution of freezing and confiscation orders. No. Maltese legislation on confiscation and mutual legal assistance does not contain a specific rule on cost‑sharing (No explicit cost‑sharing provision identified in Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621), Criminal Code (Cap. 9))
Countries should be able to share confiscated property with other countries, in particular when confiscation is directly or indirectly a result of co-ordinated law enforcement actions Yes. Malta may share confiscated assets with foreign states pursuant to applicable conventions and national provisions implementing asset‑sharing (Proceeds of Crime Act (Cap. 621) and mutual assistance laws implementing international confiscation conventions,)

Legislation

Foreign Interference Act 1982missing file:
EPRA (2000) Political Communication on Television Matters for debatemissing file:
Income Tax Act, 1949, amended 2016missing file:
General Elections Law, No.​ 354, 1991, amended 2015missing file:

*Last update: 2017